Why did Jesus choose such a word, when he asked : "SUFFER" the little children to come unto me.
Has the word "SUFFER" have another meaning other, than what the word at present has come to be?
Thank you.
2007-12-18 10:32:15 · 6 answers · asked by skydancerwi 6 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
So then, the word "SUFFER" is an issue of semantics?
For I do not understand why "suffering" would be applicable to the innocent being allowed to go and know of Jesus' gentle teachings of wisdom.
Being that he was a man so full of compassion and love, and who so willingly would give all his love to everyone, especially the innocent; the children.
Perhaps, if "suffer" suggests, painfully, then the parents must have sensed a great responsibility, once they gave their children, the trust to go, and Know Jesus.
2007-12-18 10:58:13 · update #1
All your answers will be printed toward further or more careful study. No longer being familiar with Christian sculpture, I need to read your answers veyr carefully before settling to vote.
Thank you!
2007-12-20 12:34:06 · update #2
Well obviously Jesus didn't use this word as such, it was the translators of the New Testament who chose it. I've just looked up in my dictionary though and have seen that 'suffer' also has the meaning 'permit' so this could explain it.
2007-12-18 10:44:36 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hi! How are you?
In the context to which you refer, "suffer" means allow, or tolerate.
The text was written a VERY long time ago. Language (as I'm sure you know -how many languages do you speak, by the way? I'm very impressed with your skills.) Anyway, language evolves. Today, in THIS country, anyway, suffer mainly means an unpleasant experience. As you say, Jesus was a very gentle person.
It's just a matter of time and change. Although, sometimes, it's ALSO a matter of incorrect translation... For instance, had the "original translator" been a little more accurate, Jesus' Mother, Mary, would have been described as an "umarried woman". NOT a "virgin". Probably would have saved a lot of.. ah ... confusion... }:>
2007-12-19 07:39:11 · answer #2 · answered by Ja'aj };> 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes.In 17th century England, when the bible was first translated into English (The King James version) , to suffer meant to allow or permit or even let. What Jesus is saying is "Let the children come to Me." Hope this helps.
2007-12-18 18:40:24 · answer #3 · answered by SKCave 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, 'suffer' in that case meant to allow (to tolerate or allow: I do not suffer fools gladly.) But remember Jesus didn't say 'suffer' he said something in Hebrew...or maybe Latin. It was probably the writers of the King James Version of the Bible that came up with that one.
2007-12-18 18:41:25 · answer #4 · answered by an bhuil gaeilge agat? 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A painfully made decision, to use the word SUFFER i would imagine. GARRY XXXXX Holy Lolly
2007-12-18 18:46:37 · answer #5 · answered by G 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that is what the children can expect if they don't come to him.
2007-12-18 18:54:15 · answer #6 · answered by madmike 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋