xyz's answer is basically correct.
Remember that the genes encode proteins. If a gene behaves according the the classic dominant-recessive rules, it means one copy of the gene can produce enough protein to do the job of that gene well enough that you can't distinguish it from two copies.
In incomplete dominance, the amount of protein made by transcribing and translating one copy of the gene is NOT enough to give the "full" phenotype. Twice as much protein (made by using two good copies of the gene) provides extra activity that produces a different phenotype. People classically thought this was a rare occurrence, but many human genes are thought to be good enough in one copy, but better in two copies. For example, many genes that code for DNA repair enzymes are thought to be sufficient in one copy, but may increase the rate of cancer causing mutations, even before the second copy is lost through mutation.
Codominance IS rare. In this case, a gene can encode two or more different versions of a functional protein that can each produce a distinct phenotype. In humans, these different phenotypes almost always come from the ability of the immune system with its exquisite specificity, to tell the products that result from the two (or more) alleles apart. Teh key point is that the two alleles code for two different versions of a protein that each produce a dominant phenotype, so in heterozygotes, there will be TWO dominant phenotypes produced by the same gene.
2007-12-18 08:34:02
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answer #1
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answered by Professor M 4
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This Site Might Help You.
RE:
What is the difference between Codominance and Incomplete Dominance?
What is the difference between Codominance and Incomplete Dominance?
I am Looking for the Difference NOT THE DEFINITIONS!!!
2015-08-16 18:06:46
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Incomplete dominance is also called blending or blended inheritance because both alleles (traits) blend together in the offspring; neither allele is overpowering or dominant over the other. Analogy:
red paint+white paint=pink paint.
Codominance: Both alleles express themselves (are seen as separate) in the offspring;the traits do not "blend".
Analogy: red paint(oil based)+white paint(water based)=
red paint with white speckles. [note:From a distance it may appear pink, but it really isn't]
2007-12-18 02:53:50
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answer #3
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answered by ursaitaliano70 7
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I liked the previous answer. That is basically how I explain it in class. I have a Human Anatomy class, so I also use examples in the human body or with plants. With incomplete dominance, the only human example is sickle cell anemia. In plants, it would be a pink flower. With codominance, the human example is ABO blood groups. In plants, it would be like a red and white speckled flower.
2007-12-18 03:35:13
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answer #4
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answered by Crystal L 2
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in the case of incomplete dominance,
dominant is not fully dominant and recessive is not fully recessive
if u analyse it biochemically..... suppose
normally,
one copy of a dominant allele {R} produces one unit of red color.
so 2 copies of this allele {RR} i.e. homozygous dominant will produce two units of red color.
but in case of incomplete dominance , dominant gene is not fully expressed so suppose it produces only one unit of red color.
now the recessive allele produces white color ( 2 units in homozygous recessive state)
but in this case , recessive allele is not fully suppressed so suppose it produces only 1 unit of white color.
so what will be the resultant= 1 unit red + 1 unit white color = pink color
example: mirabilis jalpa (4'o clock plant)
in case of codominance,
both genes express upto their full extent individually and in dependently
example in case of abo blood grouping in humans, MHC expression
A and B both are dominant so both can be present on same RBC cell surface and we say blood group of such individual will be AB.
hope u got the point
2007-12-18 07:43:49
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answer #5
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answered by xyz a 2
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