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December 31, 1 BC was followed by January 1, 1 AD.

There was no year "0".

(Actually, I think that was February 28 was followed by March 1. December 31 wasn't the end of the year on the Roman calendar back then.)

2007-12-17 17:59:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the year after 1 BC was 1 AD

2007-12-17 17:59:29 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

1 AD because BC counts downward while AD counts upward, 45 BC is a year earlier than 44 BC. 1344 AD is a year earlier than 1345 AD. 1 BC marked the time when Jesus was about to die,after his death, the calender changed to AD

2007-12-17 18:02:20 · answer #3 · answered by J D 1 · 0 1

1 AD. You should probably understand that the BC and AD measurement wasn't adopted until about 1000 years ago

2007-12-17 17:58:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Actually there was a year "0". It occurred 6 months after 1 B.C.
1 A.D. was 6 months later.

Jesus was born in the year 6 B.C. in the Hebrew month of Sivan, which equates to our month of June. Six (6) is the number of "MAN" (Created on the 6th Day).

In the year 6 B.C. Jesus was born (to a woman that was a virgin. No other child on earth can make that claim).

In the year 5 B.C. Jesus was 1 year old
In the year 4 B.C. Jesus was 2 years old (Herod Died, and Mary, Joseph and Jesus returned to Galilee from Egypt).

In the year 3 B.C. Jesus was 3 years old (the number of PERFECTION, the Christ child protected by the heavenly host now becomes the dependent of Mary & Joseph of Nazareth)

In 2 B.C Jesus was 4 years old

In 1 B.C. Jesus was 5 years old (1+5; 2+4; 3+3; 4+2; 5+1 =6)

In 1 A.D. Jesus was 6 years old.

No other person on earth can match that chronology. Proof positive that this child was the Son of GOD.

2007-12-17 18:31:27 · answer #5 · answered by reverend_logan 2 · 0 1

1 ad

2007-12-17 17:58:43 · answer #6 · answered by White Fire 2 · 0 0

It's BCE, not BC, and CE, not AD. And, AD stands for Anno Domini (The year of Christ's birth), not after death.

2007-12-17 18:05:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

1 A.D. or C.E. --there is no zero year. The same with 1 year after 1 B.C. it would be 1 A.D. or C.E.

So then 1B.C. to 1 A.D. would constitute 1 year

2007-12-17 18:00:19 · answer #8 · answered by thomas_tutoring2002 6 · 0 0

BC meaning Before Christ=B.C. In B.C. you count the same way as you now do. It simply means that the year was another year/s removed from the time of the birth of Christ. 100 B.C. would mean that it was 100 years before Christ was born. Today-2007 is A.D. After Death. After the Death of Christ. It has been 2007 years since (after) Christ died.

2007-12-17 18:07:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

that would be the year known as ANNO DOMINI
after that its 1 AD, then 2 AD etc

2007-12-17 17:57:51 · answer #10 · answered by mojopez 4 · 0 0

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