I'm suprised you arent getting any informed answers to this, its not that unknown. Many years ago a letter from the early church father Bishop Clement to a Theodore, who is believed to have been another Bishop was discovered in which Clement orders him to gather together and burn all copies of a second Gospel of Mark he can get ahold of in his area, a Gospel now commonly called the Secret Gospel of Mark. The reason being that the Carpocration sect of early Christians where using it to initiate followers, and that they used it to justify homosexual teachings. Clement advises that copies have been kept for the teaching of 'accepted' students, but that this other sect is to be opposed. He advises that the existence of the Gospel is to be denied even under oath, then he proceeds to describe some sections of that Gospel, and explain a little of the meaning.He admits the Gospel is true, but that the uninitiated will not understand it and so it is only to be taught to their own special students. In any case, the gospels describe a naked young man who has evidently spent several nights with Jesus in a sacred sexual initiatory ritual.
I might add I am a fully ordained AND heterosexual Bishop.
2007-12-17 15:41:31
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answer #1
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answered by wizbang 3
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Any archaeological discovery with any possible Biblical meaning is examined with microscopic intensity by scholars from many different disciplines. Especially something which would malign the character and life of someone like Jesus and shake the faith of a major religion.
For example, the ossuary (bone box) "unearthed" several years ago whose inscription indicated it had contained bones of Jesus' family and was displayed all over the world... was discovered to be a clever fake.
There were too many people who were eyewitnesses and wrote about Jesus immediately after his life and death who would have reported a hidden marriage or homosexual relations.
Jesus' "open-mindedness" had nothing to do with what was considered offense against God and society and punishable at the time by stoning to death. His open-mindedness however, included acceptance and loving people, but not their sin.
2007-12-17 15:09:30
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answer #2
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answered by Mmerobin 6
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Now really. Do you actually believe any archaeologist will be able to recover any evidence that Joshua participated in same sex sexual activity. However, if any irrefutable evidence was discovered, what difference would it make. Because he is recognized by christians as the son of god, and is considered by catholics to represent the "holy trinity", then his activity will be sanctioned. It is possible for this to happen, but while I do not accept his identity as the son of the Devinne, and find his pacifism as the preferred behavior for spiritual advancement, same sex acitvity simply represets an expression of love. It is an example of emotional connectrion and represent sharing that exprfession through ther intimacy involvedin the activity. So, this being considered, it only reinforces the design of his definition of what of love means.
2007-12-17 15:26:23
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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First of all, Jesus, being the physical manifestation of the Trinity, could not have sinned. According to the Bible, written by men inspired by God, homosexuality is put in the category of abhorred sins. As a matter of fact, Jesus couldn't lie, either. As open-minded as Jesus was, it would have been impossible for him to sin and still be part of the Godhead. Please don't believe those "other gospels", or contemporary writings that suggest anything other than a perfect God. How could anyone justify worshipping a God that is not perfect? Otherwise, how would He be God, and not a god? Sorry, NO, it could not have happened.
2007-12-17 15:07:06
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answer #4
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answered by been good 3
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The secular popularized images of Christ has many people fooled into believing that such a thing could be so. The fact is the bible says that there was nothing attractive about Jesus and He was always in a confrontation with the highest clergymen of that day and at times with His disciples. If you ever take time out to read and actually study the bible and the Jewish customs of that time you'd find out that Jesus was all man! He was strong, courageous, and sure of Himself because was not just a man but He was and still is also God.
2007-12-17 15:02:40
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answer #5
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answered by drivn2excelchery 4
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What science could prove that? Seems like an odd question. You are right about Jesus being a open guy. In one part of the Bible, Mary Magdalene was being stoned. She was "supposedly" a prostitute. He stopped the men and hecklers, and said to them; "Let he who is perfect cast the first stone". Jesus loves in an unfathomable capacity. When Job went through a trial in the Bible, and Job proved himself faithful. He got everything back, two fold. All you have to do is your best, love people, and love God. Jesus is love, and it doesn't matter who you are. Who is God or Jesus without their sinners? David was an adulterer and murderer, but in the Bible it said he was a man after God's own heart. Hope that helps.
2007-12-17 15:03:56
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answer #6
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answered by Jessica B 4
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Christ said nothing of homosexuality and his teachings were obviously polluted when paul/saul took over the early church. He brought in the judaic condemnation of homosexuality as an "abomination" mixed in with a bunch of mithraic idea ( dualism,etc.) that he picked up as a youth in Tarsus. Christ's attitude toward the despised,the scorned do not suggest he would have repudiated gays. As far as your question is concerned,it's difficult to imagine anything "archeological" that could establish gay proclivities of christ's part. But the antigay bias comes from saul's judaism. And it is in complete conflict with the the basic spirit of tolerance and forgiveness Jesus taught.
2007-12-17 15:06:49
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Dude you are living in a fantasy world. Why would the son of God who condemns homosexual relations throughout the bible, decide to violate his own decrees?
Also if he commited such heinous activities he couldn't have been the son of God
2007-12-17 15:05:26
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answer #8
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answered by federale 2
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It's all wrong! Jesus is the son of God, and he was made perfect, so why in the hell would he have homosexual relations? Most of the things they try to prove is trash anyway. I totally disagree with science.
2007-12-17 15:01:02
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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I'm curious as to what an archaeologist could find that would prove such a thing.
I've always assumed Jesus was asexual, anyway.
2007-12-17 14:59:26
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answer #10
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answered by Gordon M 2
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