Nowhere.
There is not one place in the Old or New Testament of the Holy Bible that says we must limit marriage to a male and a female -- no matter how some fundamentalists try to twist it around.
And spare us the "God made Adam and Eve, not Adam and Steve" pablum.
God also didn't give us oranges. They are a hybrid of a lemon and an apple -- so oranges must be sinful too?
2007-12-17 06:38:42
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answer #1
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answered by Acorn 7
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Rachel,
Genesis 1:27-28: 2:18, 21-24, are the key scriptures setting forth the Divine institution of marriage, a covenant joining together a man and a woman.
Here God brings the man and woman together, blesses them and tells them to be fruitful, become many and fill the earth.
A man must cling to his wife and they must become one flesh, and a woman longing will be for her husband. (Gen. 3:16)
For the best of my understanding, the biblical view of marriage is fundamentally a union of one man and one woman, nothing outside this. But since the fall of man some allowances were made because of human error, and the divine plan for the salvation of mankind.
I have found no reference to any favorable homosexual marriage in the Bible, in Jesus' day the Jews dared not to even speak of it. Would you please share your biblical knowledge on this matter with us?
2007-12-17 09:24:33
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Because in the beginning Adam saw that each animal in the Garden of Eden had a mate..
So God made woman from a rib of Adam's
If it didn't matter what mated with what,, then why is there a male and a female ??
Genesis 3:20-24
And in 1 Corinthians 6 : 9-20
Explains what sexual sin is...
2007-12-17 06:53:21
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answer #3
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answered by dolphinchic 3
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Genesis 2:24 says, "For this reason man shall leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh." This verse makes it crystal clear that marriage involves only two people of the opposite sex. And, even further, Jesus confirmed this in the gospel accounts (Matthew 5:27-32;19:5), by citing this verse, in the context of a discussion with the religious leaders of Jesus' day about divorce and sexual immorality prohibitions. The greek word used here is "porneia", which is generally translated "sexual immorality', meaning any and every form of sexual prohibition outside of the marital institution (therefore, including same sex eroticism under this denotation umbrella) ordained by our Creator in the Genesis account.
2007-12-20 10:30:10
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answer #4
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answered by Tom 4
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I just want to put this relaization out there. When he bible was orignay written in these socities the norm was man and women. And the bible was written by man and interpretaions are a plenty so doesn't matter what they so who knows the orginal. That's the constitutin all mean are created euqual well they ahd to change that context for the times so here we go again.
Men and men and women and women is the least of our problems lets worry aobut the homeless, orphans, AIDS epidemic things that hurt people. Someone sexual orientation shouldn't matter to you becuase for I am pretty sure it does not matter to God.
2007-12-17 07:06:19
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answer #5
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answered by Lauren B 2
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There is none!
But also please note: The authors of 2000 years ago had no concept of homosexual orientation or of "committed loving homosexual relationships."
BUT I must rebut what
ProDigit
wrote: "In a sence to me it's only natural if a man marries a woman and not a man; since that's the way of nature."
This is NOT true. By the very fact that at least 4% of us are exclusively homosexual, gives emperical evidence to the contrary.
AND homosexuality is commonly reported throughout the Animal Kingdom:
See: "Biological Exuberance: Animal Homosexuality and Natural Diversity," by Bruce Bagemihl, Ph.D
2007-12-18 21:16:16
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answer #6
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answered by roccopaperiello 6
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Many. See Matthew 19:3-6,1 Cor. 7:1-15, Hebrews 13:4, 1 Cor. 6:9, 10, Rev. 21:8.
There are many more. I just know these from memory.
Debbie
2007-12-17 07:16:21
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answer #7
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answered by debbiepittman 7
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I have to agree with Jon M. No where in the bible does it state that marriage is limited to only men and women. People act as if homosexuality is a new thing. In the Roman Times with the baths and so on homosexuality was rampant. Even married men had sex with other men. So in the era of the French Revolution.
Why would God want anyone to hide love that they feel for another? God is love.
I have a Son who is 22 and gay. Would I actually believe that God does not accept him? No. Recently he was almost killed in a horrific car accident. I prayed over him. He was saved, and only by God's good graces. I know this because four of his friends died in the same accident.
If God was against gay men then why was my Son spared?
People look for excuses for things they don't understand. I don't understand everything but I do know that God is love and does not profess hate of anything.
God is not judgmental and that is one trait he has always asked us to acquire. If God does not judge, who gives you the power to?
God is Love.
2007-12-17 06:53:13
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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In a sence to me it's only natural if a man marries a woman and not a man; since that's the way of nature.
Allthough I could not really find texts arround that topic I could find these textes:
1 Corinthians 7:39A woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free to marry anyone she wishes, but he must belong to the Lord.
here they're immediately assuming she will marry a man. (I'm just citing scriptures here ok?)
1 Cor7: 1 .... It is good for a man not to marry.2 But since there is so much immorality, each man should have his own wife, and each woman her own husband....
(Just citing scriptures here... to avoid immorality man should have a wife, and wife should have her husband)
Leviticus 18:22 'Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable'
Leviticus 20:13 If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable.
The bible puts it in the same context as bestiality, whichcraft, adultry, a marriage between man and his daughter, or with his sister or visa versa; and has been named as the sin of "sodomy" (It's basically an unnatural way of dealing with things, or a path taken which wasn't created by nature.)
Just like in the same way man isn't created to walk arround in an nucleair enviroment, or hasn't been created to live under water.
Same goes for smoking. It's unnatural to do that, and it's been proven to heighten the risk of getting cancer.
So science discovers that nature is telling us that men seeking men is not beneficial to a man.
Most probable aids is a N°1 killer result of this.
Things like this the more extreme they get, the more they'll automatically lead to death.
Yet to me, if someone really wants to do that, they'll be destroying their own life; a sad fate for those who do...
2007-12-17 07:48:59
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answer #9
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answered by ProDigit 3
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It says a man shall leave his father/mother and cleave unto his wife. Then blah,blah,blah about the wife. It only states it this way specifically. A man and a woman joining together in marriage. We can't assume anything but what is mentioned.
2007-12-17 07:42:29
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answer #10
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answered by paula r 7
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In Genesis 1:27-28. It was man and woman to be blessed and multiply, not man and man.
Leviticus 18:22 God is speaking to the men.
The men of Sodom surrounded Lot's house, wanting to "know" or know the strangers sexually. The city was destroyed. There are many more instances than that, you just have to do your research. Don't take anyone's word for it - you have to do this yourself.
2007-12-17 06:47:51
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answer #11
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answered by Discerning 3
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