Attention bible scholars- what does this scripture mean?

Question

1 Corinthians 15:29- 29 Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?

Mormons are the only people I know of who practice baptisms for the dead. What does this scripture mean?

wiggin- you're right it's not talking about baptising the dead it's talking about baptising for the dead.

schneb- good argument and it makes sense but most of it was speculation.

Why do people put the scripture into their own words and change the meaning in the process?

Answer 1

Just north of Corinth was a city named Eleusis. This was the location of a pagan religion where baptism in the sea was practiced to guarantee a good afterlife. This religion was mention by Homer in Hymn to Demeter 478-79.2 The Corinthians were being influenced by the religious practices found at Eleusis where baptism for the dead was practiced.

Paul used this example from the pagans in 1 Cor. 15:29, when he said, "...if the dead are not raised, then why are they baptized for the dead?" Paul did not say we.1 This is significant because the Christian church was not practicing baptism for the dead, but the pagans were.

Paul's point was simple. The resurrection is a reality. It is going to happen when Jesus returns. Even the pagans believe in the resurrection, otherwise, why would they baptize for the dead?

This is why the rules of "keeping in context" includes a history of why a particular passage was written.
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Speculation would only be true if I were taking the rest of the chapter our of context. Consider the original question by Paul earlier in the text. "Now if Christ is preached that He has been raised from the dead, how do some among you say that there is no resurrection of the dead?"
Paul was asking this question because there were those in the body that were being polluted by false doctrine based on the pagan goings on in Corinth. He then uses their pagan philosophies as a platform to bring in the truth, just as he did with the temple that was dedicated to "an unknown god". Paul did not say that the temple in question was correct, but rather used it as a platform to introduce who the REAL unknown God was and is. This is the way Paul debated, even in so much as quoting their own poets, "for we are his offspring". (ref. Acts 17)
Paul's platform of debate was showing the contradiction in the current pagan temples. They declared there was no resurrection from the dead, and yet they held baptisms for the dead. So which is it? If there is no resurrection, your baptisms are pointless. If there is a resurrection, your doctrine is false.

Answer 2

In short, it looks like the baptism of the dead was a non-biblical practice of the Corinthian church where a living person was baptized in lieu of a person that passed away, as a means of making a public profession of faith for a person that was already deceased. We can, essentially, think of it as the practice of baptizing a deceased person.

In context, Paul writes this as an answer to the city’s questions about resurrection. He’s saying, "If you don’t believe in life after death, why are you concerned with the dead?" The reference coming up that involves Luke 16:26 answers the Corinthians’ question from another angle. This verse says (indirectly) that our decision for or against Christ is made before we die. According to Luke, we can’t change our minds after death. This offers more evidence that the practice of baptism for the dead is a futile concept.

What was being baptized for the dead? It is a mysterious passage, and there have been more than thirty different attempts to interpret it. 1. The plain meaning of the Greek in verse 29 is that some people are being baptized on behalf of those who have died--and if there is no resurrection, why are they doing this? 2. Either Paul is referring to a pagan custom (notice he uses they, not "we"), or to a superstitious and unscriptural practice in the Corinthian church of vicarious baptism for believers who died before being baptized. 3. Either way, he certainly does not approve of the practice; he merely says that if there is no resurrection, why would the custom take place? The Mormon practice of baptism for the dead is neither scriptural or sensible. Baptism for the dead is a practice that was common in the pagan religions of Greece and is still practiced today by some cults; but it doesn't change a person's sentence, for that is determined while he lives (Luke 16:26).

Answer 3

The present tense suggest that at Corinth people were currently being baptized for the dead. Paul does not give any more information about the practice. There are many suggestions at what this means:
1. Living believers were being baptized for believers who died before they were baptized, so that they too, in a sense, would not miss out on baptism.
2. Christians were being baptized in anticipation of the resurrection of the dead.
3. New converts were being baptized to fill the ranks of the deceased Christians.

It does not suggest they were baptizing the dead (the statement "which are baptized for the dead" suggests living people being baptized)
There isn't a whole lot of information within the context as to the purpose of the baptism for the dead, so anything really is speculation as to what this mean. The rest of the chapter is in reference to the final resurrection of the dead, into life.

Answer 4

I see that it's talking about "why be baptized for the dead if the dead won't rise?" If you are baptized for the dead, you may as well be the dead. It goes on to say the moral in verse 33 "Do not be misled: 'Bad company corrupts good character.'"

If the dead could all be saved by someone being baptized for them, then I'm sure Jesus would've been baptized for everyone rather than dying on a cross. Jesus didn't get baptized for the dead. Another thing that's interesting is Jesus never baptized anyone.

Answer 5

I believe that babies who die immediately go to heaven. Do I have scripture? No. The closest I came come to it is when Jesus is using a child as an example to His apostles, and He says, unless you become like this little child, you will not even enter the kingdom of heaven. That leaves another question. How about an adult who has never heard the gospel? Perhaps knows absolutely nothing about God or the bible? There are tribes out in jungles, after all, even to this day. Then I would consider this verse "all of creation speaks of the existence of God, that no man has excuse". I believe God judges the person on the information available to them. If he has never heard of Jesus, how could a just God hold this person accountable to believe in Jesus? I don't know all the answers, but there is one thing I know for sure: God is the perfection of every fine thing, and that includes perfect justice and mercy.

Answer 6

This verse in context with the next verse, teaches about the hope of the future life which alone can sustain in time of persecution. It has nothing to do with baptizing dead people. In other words, Why be baptized if you are just going to die?

Answer 7

The phrase found in 1st Corinthians 15:29 of being, 'baptized for the dead' is another much misunderstood and misinterpreted passage. Some groups believe that this passage means that they can baptize their members as proxies on behalf of those that have died unsaved. The Mormon sect in particular teaches that those who are dead can still be Saved if someone who is living is baptized for them. This is a teaching which is debunked with even a cursory study of scripture, for it is evident that no one but Christ has the authority to be a proxy regarding Salvation.

These type teachings have nothing to do with Biblical truth, but because of them there is much confusion among Christians about just what this passage actually means. This can only be cleared up by the careful and diligent study of the Word of God, in it's proper context.

1st Corinthians 15:29

"Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?"
The Greek word 'for' is [huper]. It is a primary preposition and in this context means, 'for the sake of,' or 'for the benefit of' the dead. This is because baptism is the cleansing of the dead by the Spirit of Christ, wherein they are also raised up in His resurrection. Water baptism signifies this Spiritual baptism or cleansing 'for the sake of' the dead.

The context of this verse is one of Christ's payment for our sins by His death, and how by His resurrection thereafter, we are also made alive from the dead. That is the Baptism or cleansing for the dead. The efficacy of His death and resurrection. All shown by the context starting in the very first verses where it is explained as the very gospel message itself.

Answer 8

Most Christians dismiss this scripture, but even the former dean of Harvard Divinity School thinks vicarious baptism for the dead was a valid ancient Christian practice. To see a video of his opinion, visit http://www.allaboutmormons.com/ENG_Video41.php

Answer 9

you miss the point. He is talking about what people believe and comparing it to what other religions did at that time. (Mormons didn't invent the idea, they took it from a religion that was not Christian.) They were disputing Christ Jesus risen from the dead after believing it from the start. If you don't believe in Resurrection, you don't believe in Jesus Christ.

Answer 10

It's an errant practice to do anything in the hope of changing the eternal destiny of anyone who has already died. It's not a Christian or Judean practice to to anything for the dead in the hope of improving their situation in the afterlife. They've already shot their wad, and tallied their score. The game's over for the dead.

The Catholic "church" does engage in this practice, Mormon's do too, which is one of the many things that witnesses against them that they are not Christian, they are merely very influencial cults, and have gained mainstream recognition as being Christian, but Yahshua warned us that "ye shall know them by their fruits", not 'Hey, take their word for it that they're Christians!'.