2007-12-17 04:56:35 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ Infectious Diseases
According to a study in the Journal of the American Medical Association, it was 1% female-to-male vs. 20% male-to-female. In other studies, female-to-male is also significantly less than vice versa.
2007-12-17 05:02:51 · answer #1 · answered by HelpIzOnTWay 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Your question is worded very oddly, but if you're asking if someone told you they had HIV, how many percent of people would assume it was from hetero sex with a woman? Probably 0%.
2007-12-17 05:02:58 · answer #2 · answered by The Jesus 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All you need to know is that there is a chance, so just have protected sex, k?
2007-12-17 05:04:00 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
That's why you wear protection and even if you suspect anything don't sleep with that person anyway
2007-12-17 08:38:47 · answer #4 · answered by Jane C 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the "presumption" is 100%, this is a fatal illness you are talking about.
2007-12-17 05:01:14 · answer #5 · answered by essentiallysolo 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
you need to practice safe sex. that will lessen your chances.
2007-12-17 05:01:43 · answer #6 · answered by kristenterf 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋