Was Charles Haddon Spurgeon a "Bible-corrector"?

Question

for saying that Romans 8:24 should be rendered "saved in hope," instead of the KJV's "saved by hope"? [Metropolitan Tabernacle Pulpit, Vol 27, 1881, page 485 — see more Spurgeon KJV comments in What is "KJV-Onlyism?", his & many others' views in the article, "Quotes on Bible Translations."]

Answer 1

He was trying to present a more modern translation of the original text, as apposed to the KJV's translation. I don't believe he intended to change the meaning of Paul's original communication.