Did the KJV translators mislead their readers by saying that their New Testament was "translated out of the or

Question

[title page of KJV N.T.] Were they "liars" for claiming to have "the original Greek" to translate from?
Was "the original Greek" lost after 1611?

Answer 1

The greek was not original (Acts 26"14) I think they lied. certainly Erasmus knew A)He didn't translate all of it from the Greek. and B What He was working with was not "original"

Answer 2

early readers of the kjv would have known that all classical texts come down to us by a process of recension, and many of them would have known that erasmus' texta recepta was a very good recension by the standards of the time.

by claiming to translate from 'the original greek' the kjv translators were pointing out that they had not gone via the jerome vulgate (the original through-translation of the bible - into latin).

the claim that the kjv is translated 'out of the original greek' is both bona fide and accurate as long as you take the words in the natural sense they would have borne at that time.

twisting words into new and unlikely meanings is something you should do only with the actual text of the kjv, not its prefatory material.

Answer 3

I haven't had time to listen to the KJV translators...never heard them say their New Testament out of the original Greek...

Wake up numbnuts...Latin Vulgate translation of the Bible...is where the Gutenberg Bible came from which gave way to the KJV...or isn't your little mind capable of understanding that???

Answer 4

Perhaps you are misreading their statement. Did they really claim to have the original manuscript or merely refer to the language in which the original was written in rather than a translation from which to work from?

Hope that helps.