Is it not ridiculous to suggest that when the TR disagrees with the KJV?

Question

that Greek TR has errors, but the KJV doesn't? Is this not the ultimate example of "translation worship"? (Reject the original in favour of the translation)

Answer 1

Hello, Peter:

The Greek was corrupted when the Byzantine Empire's king, Justinian, declared the Catholic Church supreme. Later they split, but some minor errors remain.

Although Aramaic was considered a forgotten language, and the Syriac used as a basis for much of the KJV, a tribe of Christians were discovered in 1918 when Britan conquored the Muslim territory of Kurdishia. And they had what is known as the Eastern Peshitta, or Aramaic Bible.

You can buy the George Lamsa translation of this wonderful manuscript, but rest assured, it most accurately leads the KJV, and we can trust our Bibles because God has protected them--you can be saved by reading any one.

So I won't have to argue about which is best, because Jesus said the whores would enter the kingdom before the arguing "Sadducees and Pharisees."

A Bible code re-orients you to primite beliefs at www.abiblecode.com

Shalom, Peace in Jesus, Ben Yeshua

Answer 2

It seems to me the only ones that can argue this would be those who are capable of understanding both languages.

What choice in the matter does one have who depends on the translation?

I think this whole idea or concept of "translation worship" is invalid and has no value whatsoever... Even my internet search returned ZERO about this!

Enough said!

Answer 3

You are seeing clearly here. The KJV only crowd are really beyond the pale. (The TR does have errors, and indeed some rather flagrant ones)

Answer 4

Just because you disagree with the parts of the bible that point out and rebuke your personal sin doesn't make it an error.

Answer 5

You're bored with masturbation aren't you???