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12 answers

Sadly most do. There is no scriptural support for the Immaculate Conception of Mary or her supposed perpetual virginity James and Judas both of which were half brothers of Jesus each wrote Epistles. Note they humbly call themselves servants of Jesus Christ, because they probably did not believe in him as Lord till after his Resurrection. .

James 1:1 James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.

Jude 1:1 Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ, and brother of James, to them that are sanctified by God the Father, and preserved in Jesus Christ, and called:

Also he had at least 2 other half brothers and 2 or more sisters .

Mark 6:3 Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us?

Paul also peaks of Jesus' brother James.

Galatians 1:19 But other of the apostles saw I none, save James the Lord’s brother.

No Mary was only a virgin before & when she conceived & gave birth to Jesus .She had at least 6 other children by her husband Joseph .

2007-12-17 00:54:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

@Daver, you utilize biblical texts way out of context to assist your perception. case in point Ez forty 4:2 isn't talking some actual gate of the temple (you're able to study verse a million and following verses to work out this); additionally Matt. 27:sixty one, 28:a million there are 3 Marys, Jesus' mom Mary, Mary Magdalene, and Jesus' mom's sister the spouse of Clopas. the way you leap to the tip that this Mary is the mum of James and Joseph (making them "cousins") is a "leap of religion" which you have in hoping the scriptures instruct your component. The Bible needless to say says they are "brothers." there is not something in scripture that proves or says that Joseph extra different infants to the relatives from a prior marriage, in certainty there's no scriptural data that he did. The very concept that Mary remained a virgin after Jesus' delivery wasn't even a perception till 4 centuries after the reality. for that reason all of the different references you utilize are fallacious as a results of fact they anticipate that somebody have been given the data incorrect in translating the bible. Sorry, yet those are the data.

2016-10-11 11:14:37 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Mary was born without original sin on her soul. Therefore, she was asked to be the Mother of God. It was an Immaculate Conception the minute that the Angel Gabriel brought her the message. She didn't even give birth to our Lord the "normal" way. There was no pain for her. Yes, I do believe that she was and always remained Virgin.

2007-12-17 00:22:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3 3

It continues to bewilder and shock me that Catholics still protest that the "immaculate conception" has to do with the pregnancy of Mary. Read your bibles, people. Mary was the infant conceived of the immaculate conception, not Jesus.

2007-12-17 00:30:31 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

The Immaculate Conception is, according to Roman Catholic dogma, the conception of Mary, the mother of Jesus without any stain of original sin, in her mother's womb: the dogma thus says that, from the first moment of her existence, she was preserved by God from the lack of sanctifying grace that afflicts mankind, and that she was instead filled with divine grace. It is further believed that she lived a life completely free from sin. Her immaculate conception in the womb of her mother, by normal sexual intercourse (Christian tradition identifies her parents as Sts. Joachim and Anne), should not be confused with the doctrine of the virginal conception of her son Jesus.

The feast of the Immaculate Conception, celebrated on December 8, was established in 1476 by Pope Sixtus IV. He did not define the doctrine as a dogma, thus leaving Roman Catholics freedom to believe in it or not without being accused of heresy; this freedom was reiterated by the Council of Trent. The existence of the feast was a strong indication of the Church's belief in the Immaculate Conception, even before its 19th century definition as a dogma.

The Immaculate Conception was solemnly defined as a dogma by Pope Pius IX in his constitution Ineffabilis Deus, on December 8, 1854.

The Roman Catholic Church believes the dogma is supported by Scripture (e.g. Mary's being greeted by Angel Gabriel as "full of grace" or "highly favoured"), as well as either directly or indirectly by the writings of many of the Church Fathers, and often calls Mary the Blessed Virgin (Luke 1:48). Catholic theology maintains that, since Jesus became incarnate of the Virgin Mary, it was fitting that she be completely free of sin for expressing her fiat. (Ott, Fund., Bk 3, Pt. 3, Ch. 2, §3.1.e).

For the Roman Catholic Church the dogma of the Immaculate Conception gained additional significance from the apparitions of Our Lady of Lourdes in 1858. In Lourdes a 14-year-old girl, Bernadette Soubirous, claimed a beautiful lady appeared to her. The lady identified herself as "the Immaculate Conception" and the faithful believe her to be the Blessed Virgin Mary.

2007-12-17 00:26:25 · answer #5 · answered by TheoMDiv 4 · 4 0

Yes

2007-12-17 00:21:40 · answer #6 · answered by Benny 3 · 5 0

Yes. We believe that she was conceived immaculately by the holy Ghost. Mary and Joseph both remained virgins until the day they died.

2007-12-17 00:22:50 · answer #7 · answered by Fabian19 2 · 2 6

I can never believe a mother is a virgin. Outrageous!

2007-12-17 00:23:14 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

why do some people think that all girls have sex at some time. i know and have known several girls that are over 70 that have never had sex. they have never even been touched by someone else!!!

2007-12-17 00:23:31 · answer #9 · answered by george 2 6 · 2 3

Much of catholic doctrine is unbiblical like that.

Catholicism teaches a false gospel of works that leads to eternal hell (Galatians 1:6-9).

2007-12-17 00:21:55 · answer #10 · answered by Chris 4 · 2 7

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