I heard that if you read the Bible from i.e. England, that you'll find the words in the Bible different from a Bible in i.e Mexico.
Are the words different?
I know that all the Qurans in the world have the SAME word for word of writing, no matter what Quarn you read.
Is this the same for the Bible? are all of the bibles the same word for word?
2007-12-16 07:46:59 · 13 answers · asked by Alexis Samira 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It is a question of language and not country. The Bible was originally written in Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic. Early texts were copied and errors were made in the copying. Modern language also changes.
So there are two issues - which texts to use and how to translate it into the language in question. In English the best early translation is the King James Version (KJV) which was made on the instructions of King James at the beginning of the seventeenth century.
In the last fifty years or so there have been a number of modern translations. I personally use the New International Version more than any others.
The Qu'ran was written down in Arabic and that version is not changed in any way and most (all?) Muslim imams and many others learn Arabic so that they can read it in the original. There are some translations but they do not have any authority.
2007-12-16 08:04:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Obviously, the KJV is a *generally* accurate translation of the original texts. However, there are three things any reader should be aware of before picking it up. 1) Not so much a problem with the revised KJV, but the English language has changed significantly since the original KJV. The danger isn't so much from words that are completely obsolete, since a reader will immediately recognize those words as such. The difficulty lies with words that are still in use today but have radically different meanings than they did back then. This can lead to confusion and misunderstanding. 2) The translators of the original KJV were experienced preachers who anticipated that the product would be used for reading aloud to congregations during services. They had decades of public speaking experience, knew what a good, ringing turn of phrase was, and sometimes sacrificed accuracy for euphony. 3) The translators injected their own cultural biases into their product, sometimes deliberatly, sometimes unknowingly. An example of the former is the description of Phoebe in the NT, described as a "servant," when a more accurate translation of the original word (diakonos) would have been "deacon" -- they simply had a hard time accepting that a woman could have held such a prominent position in the early church. An example of the latter is Paul's use of the head/tail metaphor for the relationship between men and women. In English that metaphor carries connotations of superiority and subordination. Problem is, there were several different words for "head" available to Paul, and in the original language he picked phrasing (kephale) which did not carry this power connotation -- although head/tail is literally accurate, a more accurate representation of his meaning would be something like "left hand/right hand." Had Paul meant to imply the power dynamic, he would have used "archon" instead (as he did on several occasions). Point is, as sexist as Paul could be in the original text, the KJV makes him sound somewhat worse than he really was.
2016-04-09 07:30:06 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Qur'an is only in Arabic and in this way it is preserved. There are TRANSLATIONs and interpretations in other languages and these differ according to the translator and the language.
The Bible is NOT the same in this way because there is no original text to compare all of the later translations to. There is not even total agreement about which books are to be included. The Catholic Bible has 72 books while the Protestant has 66 and the Orthodox has 80 or so.
This in and of itself means that there is no universal Bible that all those who call themselves Christians adhere to. I am not, for the purpose of this question adressing the belief that the Bible is the Word of God as my views on this are complicated and best saved for another question.
But NO they are not all the same and which version is correct has been the source of theological debate since before ANY of them were written and continues to be to this very day.
2007-12-16 07:54:49 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, the meanings and messages that are written in the bible is the same no matter what language you speak.
2007-12-16 07:53:08 · answer #4 · answered by Easy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes they are different. Our New World Translation is printed in 24,000 languages, all with the same meaning, that of God, Jehovah.
2007-12-16 07:56:59 · answer #5 · answered by Wisdom 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well in England we have an english translation and in Mexico I guess they have a Spanish translation.
The original was written in Hebrew and Greek.
2007-12-16 07:49:55 · answer #6 · answered by a Real Truthseeker 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
It is a little different in each language, but so is the Quran (and every other translated book) because there are no languages that translate to each other perfectly.
2007-12-16 07:50:58 · answer #7 · answered by funaholic 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
they say the same words, just in a different language so that the people can learn from it and understand it.
2007-12-16 08:58:50 · answer #8 · answered by Elizabeth 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yeah...just like anything else that is translated into a different language...duh...
I'm guessing you don't get out of the house much...Chinese is different than English...etc....etc...
2007-12-16 07:52:13 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
a translation will always be a interpretation of the original work
2007-12-16 07:54:30 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋