why do catholics beleive mary was sinless?

Question

i understand this is part of the religion and its what is taught...
however there is no biblical scripture supporting her being sinless... there is actual scripture supporting she was with sin

For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God
Rom 3:23


But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.Gal 3:22
other beleif is that you pray that mary will pray for u... he is mediator

For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus 1 Tim 2:5

i really dont understand where the beleif began or how anyone can explain this belief... im not anti catholic..

to father k... i appreciate your effort... i do see so some of your points.. yes infants and "special" people cant sin because they do not know the difference between right and wrong... however none of those biblical verses support that she was actually sinless... this seems to be man made... all those comments u made... some1 taught u that? who taught u? another priest? from what reference? i dont understand....

once again i hear logic.. its only common sense....
basically every1 who supports this idea she was sinless has no biblical reference or or any other method of proving this... so this in fact is just something based on logic.... i really dont think the bible is a logical book... and if mary was sinless how did her mother conceive her? and so on and so on?
all i know is what the bible says... i thought there was some kind of reference to explain why they beleive this..
but none of u have any real answers .. jsut ur opions

to mr cmnc... u my friend made the dumbest point i have ever heard on yahoo answers... im sorry my friend u are complete robot...."I loath these bible pickers, who search through the scriptures to validate their point of view and not having the courage to stand with their true convictions in believing by their faith "

U LOATHE PEOPLE THAT READ THE BIBLE TO PROVE THEIR FAITH!!!! R U SERIOUS?? so dont read the bible and beleive what other plp tell u to.. good one ... your one of those morons who would have paid "reparations " and beleived it was a good thing... u dont read the bible u jsut let other plp tell u what to do..

ONLY A FOOL would say something like that... sorry plain and simple u are an ignorant moron....

i did not know muslims beleived that... its in the Quran? didnt know that...

to dee hat ..thats an amazing answer.... thats what i was really looking for .. some kind of doctrine where it all started... not a bunch of catholics saying "well because" ......whether or not she is or isnt is irrelevant.. i just wanted to know why....

Answer 1

Was Mary Immaculately Conceived?

THE time—December 8, 1854. The place—Saint Peter’s basilica in Rome. In a voice trembling with emotion, Pope Pius IX reads the Latin text of the following decree: “We declare, pronounce, and define that the doctrine which holds that the most Blessed Virgin Mary, at the first instant of her conception was preserved immaculate from all stain of original sin, by the singular grace and privilege granted her by Almighty God, through the merits of Christ Jesus, Savior of mankind, is a doctrine revealed by God and therefore must be firmly and constantly believed by all the faithful.”

Ever since then this dogma has been binding on all Catholics, and the Feast of the Immaculate Conception has been celebrated throughout the Catholic world each year on December 8.

This doctrine should not be confused with what is called the Virgin Birth. The so-called Immaculate Conception concerns the conception and birth of Mary, whereas the Virgin Birth relates to the miraculous birth of Jesus. That Mary was a virgin when she conceived and bore Jesus is clearly stated in the Holy Scriptures. (Matthew 1:18-23; Luke 1:34, 35) But do the Scriptures show that Mary herself was born perfect and free from inherited sin?

Unknown in Early Church History

Under the heading “Immaculate Conception,” The Catholic Encyclopedia admits: “No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture.” So how was it that the Roman Catholic Church added this idea to its dogma? Why did a church that claims to have existed for nearly 2,000 years wait until 1854 before making the Immaculate Conception a required belief for all Catholics?

The Catholic Encyclopedia states: “In regard to the sinlessness of Mary the older Fathers are very cautious. . . . The Greek Fathers never formally or explicitly discussed the question of the Immaculate Conception.” The fact is that several of the earliest Greek church fathers, such as Origen (185-254 C.E.), Basil the Great (330-379 C.E.) and Chrysostom (345-407 C.E.), expressed views that were contrary to the belief that Mary was immaculately conceived, that is, was free from the stain of original sin. And Augustine (354-430 C.E.), said to be the greatest of the old Latin “Fathers,” expressed similar views.

In his book Christian Worship: Its Origin and Evolution, French Catholic historian Louis Duchesne writes: “The Church of Rome seems to have celebrated no festival of the Virgin before the seventh century.” True, during the fifth century C.E., the Greek-speaking church began keeping a Feast of the Conception of John the Baptist, and, sometime later, a Feast of the Conception of Mary. But The Catholic Encyclopedia admits: “In celebrating the feast of Mary’s Conception the [“Christian”] Greeks of old . . . did not think it absurd to celebrate a conception which was not immaculate, as we see from the Feast of the Conception of St. John . . . To the Orthodox Greeks of our days, however, the feast means very little; they continue to call it ‘Conception of St. Anne’ [Anna, traditionally held to be Mary’s mother], indicating unintentionally, perhaps, the active [sexual] conception which was certainly not immaculate.”

We note, then, that Mary festivals originated in the Eastern, or Greek, Church and that they were not adopted by the Roman, or Latin, Church before the seventh century C.E. And although celebrating a feast of Mary’s conception, the Greek Orthodox Church does not consider her conception to have been immaculate.

“The Great Controversy”

The Catholic Encyclopedia concedes that the birth of the Immaculate Conception doctrine was long, and far from painless. It states: “Originally the Church only celebrated the Feast of the Conception of Mary, as she kept the Feast of St. John’s conception, not discussing the sinlessness. This feast in the course of centuries became the Feast of the Immaculate Conception, as dogmatical argumentation brought about precise and correct ideas, and as the thesis of the theological schools regarding the preservation of Mary from all stain of original sin gained strength.”

Yes, the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary was formulated only after centuries of “dogmatical argumentation.” It took hundreds of years for the “thesis of the theological schools” to ‘gain strength’ and finally be adopted. In their articles on “Immaculate Conception,” approved Catholic reference works contain columns of material under the subheading “The Controversy” or “The Great Controversy.” They speak of “timid beginnings” of the “new feast” in England in the 11th century C.E. After their conquest of England in 1066, the Normans abolished it, considering it to be “a product of insular simplicity and ignorance.” In France, Catholic “Saint” Bernard of Clairvaux (1091-1153) took a public stand against it. In the 13th century, “Saint” Thomas Aquinas, said to be the “foremost philosopher and theologian” of the Catholic Church, opposed the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary on the grounds that Mary was redeemed by Jesus like the rest of sinful mankind.

However, another Catholic theologian and philosopher (John Duns Scotus 1265-1308) came out in favor of the dogma. Scotus was a Franciscan, whereas Aquinas was a Dominican. So throughout the centuries the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception was a bone of contention between these two orders of the Roman Catholic Church.

Summing up this controversy, The Catholic Encyclopedia states: “The attempts to introduce it [the feast of the Immaculate Conception] officially provoked contradiction and theoretical discussion, bearing upon its legitimacy and its meaning, which were continued for centuries and were not definitively settled before 1854.” In that year Pope Pius IX solemnly proclaimed that the Immaculate Conception of Mary “is a doctrine revealed by God and therefore must be firmly and constantly believed by all the faithful.”

However, according to the authoritative Dictionnaire de Théologie Catholique, over 50 Catholic bishops, including the archbishop of Paris, were against the dogma’s being made a required belief for all Catholics. Johann Dollinger, Germany’s foremost 19th-century Catholic theologian, stated bluntly: “We reject the new Roman doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary because it is contrary to the tradition of the first thirteen centuries, which states that Christ alone was conceived without sin.” Dollinger was later excommunicated.

Offshoot of the Trinity Doctrine

Why did the Catholic hierarchy insist on imposing this controversial doctrine on all Catholics? The dogma of the Immaculate Conception is a typical example of the dilemmas a church creates for itself when it departs from the straightforward truths outlined in the Bible. One unbiblical doctrine leads to another.

Research reveals that Mary worship stems from the dogma of the Trinity. How so? It all goes back to the fourth century C.E. In 325 C.E., Emperor Constantine, who was not even a baptized “Christian” at the time, organized the Nicene Council to settle the theological debate over the Trinity. More for political than for religious reasons, Constantine sided with the trinitarians. The Nicene Creed declared Jesus to be God. That started the theologians thinking about the position of Mary. If Jesus is God, that made Mary the mother of God. This idea shocked some, and theological discussions went on for a century. Eventually, in 431 C.E., the Council of Ephesus pronounced Mary “Theotokos,” literally, “God-bearer,” or “Mother of God.”

Interestingly, this title was given to Mary in Ephesus, Asia Minor, a region that was the center of pagan Mother-Goddess worship. Since Constantine had made apostate Christianity a universal, or catholic, religion acceptable to the pagan masses, Mary worship took the place of devotion to various pagan mother-goddesses. As popular veneration of Mary spread, grafted onto the Trinity dogma, it seemed logical to many to pronounce Mary completely sinless.

Other Reasons for the Doctrine

The Immaculate Conception doctrine is also a consequence of the role that Catholic theology assigns to Mary in redemption. In Catholic parlance, Mary is variously called “Mediatrix,” “Co-Redemptrix,” “Coredemptress” and even “Virgin-priest.” Why?

From very early times, Catholic theologians have called Mary the “Second Eve.” Quoting 1 Corinthians 15:22, 45, they draw a parallel not only between “the first man Adam” and “the last Adam [Christ]” but also between Eve and Mary. The Encyclopaedia Britannica (1976) states that this parallel ascribes “to Mary and to her obedience an active share in the redemption of the human race.”—Italics ours.

Admittedly, the Catholic Church recognizes Christ’s primary role in redemption. In fact, it teaches that by a “singular grace and privilege granted her by Almighty God,” Mary was the first to benefit from “the merits” of Christ’s sacrifice, and that they were applied to her “at the first instant of her conception” in order to preserve her “from all stain of original sin.”

How, then, do Catholic theologians explain Mary’s supposedly “active share in the redemption of the human race”? They say she is “Coredemptress” because, to quote The Catholic Encyclopedia, “the consent of Mary was essential to the redemption.” They apply the word “Mediatrix” to her because they claim she intercedes on behalf of fallen mankind. They also say that, as such, Mary “can legitimately be called Virgo sacerdos or Virgin-priest” because she cooperated with Christ in his sacrifice and she now shares with him in dispensing “all graces.”

Furthermore, following the erroneous Latin version of Genesis 3:15, traditional Catholic theology makes Mary the “woman” who, as Catholics claim, will crush the head of the “serpent,” Satan. (Genesis 3:14, 15) (See the footnotes on Genesis 3:15 in the Douay and Jerusalem Bibles.) The claim is made that to conquer Satan, Mary must be absolutely sinless. But what does the Bible say?

The Bible Viewpoint

Writing just three years after Pope Pius IX imposed this dogma on the Catholic world, Monsignor Malou, the bishop of Brugge, Belgium, admitted: “It should be plainly stated that, of all the arguments put forward by the defenders of the privilege [of Immaculate Conception], those taken from Holy Scripture are the least rigorous and accurate. Too often a host of irrelevant texts are quoted injudiciously and almost haphazardly.”

But Catholic theologians claim that both the Bible and tradition represent God’s revelation to mankind. And yet the best Catholic authorities state that a tradition must not contradict the Scriptures and that it must, explicitly or implicitly, be proved “Apostolic.” How does the dogma of the Immaculate Conception measure up to these requirements?

As we have seen, the doctrine is not supported by the oldest traditions of the Roman Catholic Church. Moreover, it contradicts the Scriptures. The claim that Mary was preserved from original sin from the first instant of her conception denies the universality of inherited sin. The apostle Paul states clearly: “Sin entered the world through one man, and through sin death, and thus death has spread through the whole human race because everyone has sinned.” (Romans 5:12, JB) The Scriptures also state that redemption for “all mankind” came only through Christ’s death. (Hebrews 2:9, JB) If the dogma of the Immaculate Conception of Mary were true, Mary would have been redeemed before Christ died, in fact, even years before he came to earth.

Thus, as measured by the Catholic Church’s own yardstick, this dogma is neither “Apostolic” nor Scriptural, and is therefore not an acceptable “tradition.” Should this not move sincere Catholics to examine in the light of the Bible other “articles of faith” they are required to believe?


Elijah & Enoch did NOT go to Heaven!!!

The way to heaven was not opened up until Jesus died for our sins. They died before Jesus came.

Answer 2

Can anyone prove or disprove that the mother of Jesus was sinless or sinful. It is all in ones own self belief as a RC I personally believe; not forced to believe, that Mary was indeed without blemish of sin. If all Christians really believed that Jesus was truly the son of God who is sinless how could it be that the mother of the son of God be in any way sinful, or are certain Christians sexist believing only God was without sin and the mother of God sinful. I loath these bible pickers, who search through the scriptures to validate their point of view and not having the courage to stand with their true convictions in believing by their faith which alone will testify a true follower of Jesus, who rebuked many times the Pharisees who endlessly quoted at him scripture. The mere fact that Mary give birth to Jesus should be enough to settle the argument of her purity. As we RC say; passionately, 'Mary conceived without sin pray for us'

Answer 3

Only Roman Catholics believe this.

Their faith originates from logic. Jesus was sinless, he is god, therefore, the ultimate expression of perfection in this universe. Taking original sin into account, Jesus could not be sinless if he were born of any ordinary mortal; he could only be born without sin if his mother was without it, therefore, Mary was without sin.

You must also remember that there is much more to Catholic faith then just the bible, there are many doctrines and other books involved.

Edit: I seem to have offended someone by saying "Only Roman Catholics believe this". Perhaps I did not make myself clear enough. I did not mean that if you be;lieve this, you must be Roman Catholic; I meant to say that not all catholics believe this, and most that do just so happen to be Roman Catholics. I apologize for any confusion.

Answer 4

Catholics believe that Mary was conceived without original sin in order to be a sinless bearer of God incarnate: Jesus Christ. This is known as the immaculate conception. This sinlessness was accomplished only on account of God's grace, and not on Mary's merits.

these beliefs have been held by the Church since the earliest times.
The Ark of the Covenant in the Old Testament contained the word of God (the tablets containing the commandments). Likewise, Mary's womb was the Ark of the New Covenant which was used to hold the Incarnate Word of God.

Being conceived without sin does not mean that Mary had no need of a redeemer. In fact, like every descendant of Adam, Mary had vital need of a redeemer. Mary's freedom from original sin was an unmerited gift of God in that she was redeemed by Christ at the moment of her conception. It is at the moment of conception that God creates the soul and hers was created in a state of sanctifying grace. If you had the opportunity to create your mother, wouldn't you make her perfect in every way? This is why there are the doctrines of the perpetual virginity and immaculate conception of Mary.

Jesus refers to Mary's sinless nature when He addresses her as "woman" in John 2:4 and 19:26. Today, one looks at Him addressing her in this manner and thinks this is disrespectful or that He is admonishing her. In fact, Mary was not the first sinless woman, Adam's wife was also created sinless. When she was first created, Adam named her "woman" (Genesis 2:23). It was after the fall, when she was no longer sinless, that her name was changed to "Eve" (Genesis 3:20). By referring to Mary as "woman," Jesus is recognizing her sinless nature.

Answer 5

Because the Bible tells us that she is.

When the angel Gabriel called Mary, "Full of grace," Mary was already full of grace.

When the angel Gabriel said, "The Lord is with you," the Lord was already with her.

The Blessed Virgin Mary was in a state of grace before she says "yes" to the angel's question and before the Holy Spirit came upon her for a different purpose.

When did Mary's state of grace begin?

Catholics believe this state of grace was with Mary since her Immaculate Conception. This means that Mary was conceived in the normal way (not like Jesus) but that she did not inherit original sin.

With the grace of God and without the effects of original Sin, we believe that Mary did not commit personal sin at any time during her life.

God prepared her for her later role as the mother of Jesus.

Catholics celebrate this miracle on December 8 as the Feast of the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary.

For more information, see the Catechism of the Catholic Church, section 490 and following: http://www.nccbuscc.org/catechism/text/pt1sect2chpt2art3p2.htm#490

With love in Christ.

Answer 6

According to The Catholic Encyclopedia, Candlemas, which falls on February 2, is a day set aside to honor the purification of the Virgin Mary. It is to recall Mary’s obeying God’s law by going to the temple in Jerusalem and offering a sacrifice of purification after she bore Jesus. (Luke 2:21-24; Lev. 12:1-4) How strange! The Catholic church teaches that Mary was sinless when she conceived Jesus, yet sets aside a day to honor her performance of an act that proves that she was not sinless but was imperfect, as are all the descendants of Adam.—Rom. 3:23; 5:12.

Answer 7

We believe Mary was sinless for a single reason: God willed it to be so, in order that God might enter the world from a purified vessel.

He is God; his saving grace, in Mary's case, was able to reach back in time and sanctify the vessel of his arrival.

Answer 8

That same scripture supports believing that Jesus is a mere man and also sinned. It's all in the interpretation.

Answer 9

European Catholics are ordered to believe Mary was sinless or face excommunication today. In the past, they also faced burning at the stake.

If the monopolistic Pope says the earth is flat, the earth is flat: no questions allowed, convert or die.

Answer 10

Rom. 3:23 - Some Protestants use this verse "all have sinned" in an attempt to prove that Mary was also with sin. But "all have sinned " only means that all are subject to original sin. Mary was spared from original sin by God, not herself. The popular analogy is God let us fall in the mud puddle, and cleaned us up afterward through baptism. In Mary's case, God did not let her enter the mud puddle.

Rom. 3:23 - "all have sinned" also refers only to those able to commit sin. This is not everyone. For example, infants, the retarded, and the senile cannot sin.

Rom. 3:23 - finally, "all have sinned," but Jesus must be an exception to this rule. This means that Mary can be an exception as well. Note that the Greek word for all is "pantes."

1 Cor. 15:22 - in Adam all ("pantes") have died, and in Christ all ("pantes") shall live. This proves that "all" does not mean "every single one." This is because not all have died (such as Enoch and Elijah who were taken up to heaven), and not all will go to heaven (because Jesus said so).

Rom. 5:12 - Paul says that death spread to all ("pantes") men. Again, this proves that "all" does not mean "every single one" because death did not spread to all men (as we have seen with Enoch and Elijah).

Rom. 5:19 - here Paul says "many (not all) were made sinners." Paul uses "polloi," not "pantes." Is Paul contradicting what he said in Rom. 3:23? Of course not. Paul means that all are subject to original sin, but not all reject God.

Rom. 3:10-11 - Protestants also use this verse to prove that all human beings are sinful and thus Mary must be sinful. But see Psalm 14 which is the basis of the verse.

Psalm 14 - this psalm does not teach that all humans are sinful. It only teaches that, among the wicked, all are sinful. The righteous continue to seek God.

Psalm 53:1-3 - "there is none that does good" expressly refers to those who have fallen away. Those who remain faithful do good, and Jesus calls such faithful people "good."

Luke 18:19 - Jesus says, "No one is good but God alone." But then in Matt. 12:35, Jesus also says "The good man out of his good treasure..." So Jesus says no one is good but God, and then calls another person good.

Rom. 9:11 - God distinguished between Jacob and Esau in the womb, before they sinned. Mary was also distinguished from the rest of humanity in the womb by being spared by God from original sin.

Luke 1:47 - Mary calls God her Savior. Some Protestants use this to denigrate Mary. Why? Of course God is Mary's Savior! She was freed from original sin in the womb (unlike us who are freed from sin outside of the womb), but needed a Savior as much as the rest of humanity.

Luke 1:48 - Mary calls herself lowly. But any creature is lowly compared to God. For example, in Matt. 11:29, even Jesus says He is lowly in heart. Lowliness is a sign of humility, which is the greatest virtue of holiness, because it allows us to empty ourselves and receive the grace of God to change our sinful lives.

Answer 11

Because they lack an accurate knowledge of the Bible.