Christians only on this one please. What is the meaning of these 2 scriptures?

Question

How do we reconcile both of these scriptures together? They were both quoted on a previous question asking what the bible called atheists. Someone quoted this:

The fool hath said in his heart, "There is no God".

Then another person quoted this!

For all those people who call atheists fools, I offer Matt 5:22:

"and whoever says, 'You fool,' shall be guilty enough to go into the fiery hell."

What is everyone's view on these 2 scriptures? I'd love to hear your thoughts.

Hi Icy Gaz - That's okay. I can't resist tootsy pops either. You're funny. My fav insult is bigot.

Towelieban Barbie - Yes, I didn't catch that He said "brothers". I am a Christian. I would have chosen you for best answer if your answer was said in kindness.

It is funny to me how many people think that I am an atheist out for an argument. I am a Christian who doesn't understand which one of those 2 people I mentioned in my question were right and I wanted someone to explain it to me.

Sorry hotvw191... (Jim) - I didn't mean that offensively. Most things I ask I don't care who answers. The more views the better. But this is a question I wanted a Christian perspective on. I didn't mean to hurt anyone. Sorry.

Answer 1

Taking the words generally, apart from the Wisdom literature, we find nabhal frequently translated "fool" and nebhalah, "folly"; nabhal, however, denotes a wicked person, an evil character, "shamelessly immoral," equivalent to "a son of Belial" (Cheyne), rather than a merely "foolish" person, and nebhalah, "wickedness," "shameless impropriety," rather than simple folly. We have almost a definition of nabhal in Isa 32:6: "For the fool will speak folly, and his heart will work iniquity, to practice profaneness, and to utter error against Yahweh, to make empty the soul of the hungry, and to cause the drink of the thirsty to fail." Abigail described her husband, Nabhal, as "a son of Belial"


I post this only to open your eyes to the context of the word fool in these passages.It does not mean what the english version of "fool" does,as you can see.Please before you start an argument,know the word used,in these passages under "deabate" it means moraly corrupt basically.

In the Chokhmah or Wisdom literature, which, within the Bible, is contained in Job, Proverbs (especially), Ecclesiastes, Canticles, some Psalms and certain portions of the prophetic writings, "fool" and "folly" are frequent and distinctive words. Their significance is best seen in contrast with "Wisdom." This was the outcome of careful observation and long pondering on actual life in the light of religion and the Divine revelation. Wisdom had its seat in God and was imparted to those who "feared" Him ("The fear of Yahweh is the beginning (chief part) of knowledge" Prov 1:7). Such wisdom was the essence of life, and to be without it was to walk in the way of death and destruction. The fool was he who was thoughtless, careless, conceited, self-sufficient, indifferent to God and His Will, or who might even oppose and scoff at religion and wise instruction. See WISDOM. Various words are used to designate "the fool" and his "folly."

Same here................Much is lost in the transaltion of the Bible,please look up the hebrew meanings of words translated,otherwise you will continue to make mistakes such as these.

Hope this helps some.....

Answer 2

I have never seen so much detail in the Bible than in the area of judgment. Yet it is this very subject where so many people, Christians included, get it so wrong. Here are just a few basic principles. A Christian is never to ex-communicate or condemn - Matthew 7:1 A Christian is not to judge a non-Christian - 1 Corinthians 5:13 A Christian IS suppose to judge someone claiming to be a believer - 1 Corinthians 5:12 A non-believer's judgment carries no weight with God - 1 Corinthians 2:15 The Christian is judged daily right now, the non-believer later - 1 Peter 4:17 Since the believer's old nature is dead and is born again in Christ, the end judgment will no longer apply. - John 5:24

Answer 3

Talk about problems with hermeneutics !

In the first place, Ps 14:1 does not mean what most people think it means.

Albert Barnes' Commentary says, "The fool - The word “fool” is often used in the Scriptures to denote a wicked man - as sin is the essence of folly. Compare Job_2:10; Psa_74:18; Gen_34:7; Deu_22:21. The Hebrew word is rendered “vile person” in Isa_32:5-6. Elsewhere it is rendered “fool, foolish,” and “foolish man.” It is designed to convey the idea that wickedness or impiety is essential folly, or to use a term in describing the wicked which will, perhaps, more than any other, make the mind averse to the sin - for there is many a man who would see more in the word “fool” to be hated than in the word “wicked;” who would rather be called a “sinner” than a “fool.”



Secondly, consider the whole of verse in Matt 5:22

"Mat 5:22 but I say unto you, that every one who is angry with his brother shall be in danger of the judgment; and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council; and whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of the hell of fire. "

Note that there is a PROGRESSION of behavor and action based on the fact that someone is ANGRY. It is the extent of the anger that is the problem. The main problem is not so much what one says; the problem is why he says that.

Answer 4

This is where I think the context of the verses is important.
The quote from the Psalm addresses the concept that evil doers are punished by god. The fools are people who are intent on doing evil do evil because they believe that god does not exist to stop them. This is in the context that the Psalmist is reminding believers of what they already know about God punishing evil.
The second quote from the gospel addresses the concept of equality within the community. It is a reminder not to call people fools because people should be treated with respect. The context is that the discussions within a group of believers were getting out of hand and people needed to be told to watch what they say.

IMO mixing the two verses together yields a critical mess that results in a confusion.

These days people say 'there is no God' as a reaction to an evil religion being forced onto them. Likewise common sense should be enough for people to realise that 'you fool' is is not an incantation opening a trapdoor straight to hell.

These verses are reconciled by keeping them separate in order to apply them to specific issues they were designed to address. Those are my thoughts.

Answer 5

I am not a Christian but i do know that the scripture used to call atheists fools needs to be connected to the scripture before and after that statement for it to make sense. It is not saying that atheists are fools.


Psa 14:1 The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good.


The passage is not talking about atheists, it is talking about the logic employed by wicked theists and all of humanity. Honestly, the significance of the entire passage is compromised if you think it is talking about an atheist.

Answer 6

I'll try to help
Psalm 14:1 "The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good."

David professes that the other nations (Assyrians, Babilonians) are ignorant for not ackowledging God after all God has done for Israel during that time. He believes wisdom is to know God and foolishness is to ignore him.

Matthew 5:22  "But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire."

I understand the words of Jesus to mean, anything said in anger or intention to hurt is wrong. The contexts are very different! Literally saying the word fool isnt a sin, its the anger and possible emotions contrary to love that accompanies these remarks.

Context is very important, i hope this helps you

Answer 7

The context of the two scriptures are different.

In Matthew 5:22, Jesus is warning against calling people fools without correcting or loving them.   This verse is directed to unbelievers. It is to point out their sin and explain how an evil attitude was also sinful and worthy of punishment.
Jesus was also warning against unjustly calling someone a fool without good cause.

Psalm 14 is King David talking and he is speaking about Athiests and he quite justly calls them fools and he has good cause to do so.

Later on in Matthew we see Jesus himself quite righteously calling the Pharisees fools.

Jesus was not prohibiting a person from calling people “fools” if it was righteous and done in an appropriate manner, but He was forbidding it when done in the spirit of malicious contempt.

We are therefore not to accuse someone of being a fool without good cause and we should not use the word fool as a form of abuse with hatred in our heart toward others.

Answer 8

The Greek word used in Matt 5:22 is moros, much like calling people a moron. While the word us in Ps 14:1; Ps 53:1 is aphron which means " without reflection or intelligence, acting rashly".

One is just a plain insult, while the other is an honest evaluation.

That's the difference.

Answer 9

The first scripture, "The fool hath said in his heart, there is no God." is taken from Psalm 14:1...these are God's own words. God sees the atheists as fools, as they do not even see that there is a God.

The second scripture is taken from the sermon on the mount, & 'the fool' here does not refer to atheists.

Answer 10

Matthew 5:22 refers to calling a 'brother' or fellow Christian 'fool'.

God, Himself, calls the person who says there is no God a fool.