Wonderful. That is a truly wonderful verse.
Jesus said a number of things that support that verse as well. He did say that he is the Son of God, but told us to pray to God as OUR FATHER. And the first message he sent to the disciples after the crucifixion .. he said to Mary Magdalene... go tell my BROTHERS........ etc. "My God and your God."
So you are right on target with that verse.
Excellent research. Thanks.
2007-12-14 11:34:50
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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As Jesus did not answer the question , but rather rejected being called good. I suspect more to this than just this verse. One thing to remember about Jesus was there was an endless stream of people trying to entrap him with statements that would make him a blasphemer so he could be put to death. Until the time came that his death was required, Jesus often stated things to avoid entrapment. I think this likely an example. Besides saying only God is good, I suppose Jesus could have expounded that only God is Master as well. The fact a ruler asked this question further leads me toward believing the ruler may mave wanted to entrap Jesus as usurping his authority as well.
2007-12-14 19:44:44
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answer #2
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answered by genghis1947 4
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What needs to be interpreted? Seems self explanatory to me. Jesus was a man at this point and had given up equality with God. See Phil. 2:6-8 He was giving God the honor He deserves and at the same time, testing this man's heart.
2007-12-14 19:36:53
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answer #3
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answered by enamel 7
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Sounds like to me that this is not an ironical statement meaning the opposite of what it says, but rather that Jesus is saying that God is good, but that Jesus is not God and is therefore not good. It reminds me that Muslims and Jews also do not believe that Jesus is God.
2007-12-14 19:38:31
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answer #4
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answered by Dr. WD 5
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This verse goes hand-in-hand, with this verse:
Romans 3:9-11 (New International Version)
New International Version (NIV)
Copyright © 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society
No One is Righteous
9What shall we conclude then? Are we any better[a]? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin. 10As it is written:
"There is no one righteous, not even one;
11there is no one who understands,
no one who seeks God.
Jesus was pointing out that no one is good enough to be in the Father's presence.
2007-12-14 19:33:09
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Jesus was questioning as to whether the ruler truly knew and believed He (Jesus)was God.
A teaching reinforcement that Jesus was the Son of God and is also God.
blessings
2007-12-14 19:34:06
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answer #6
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answered by tom4bucs 7
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I see it as being self-evident: there is no one good but God!
This verse alone should tell people that it doesn't matter if the world thinks you're a "good" person, or if you tell yourself that you're a "good" person because at least you don't murder, steal, etc...We need to remember that God alone is good and therefore when judged by that standard, no one on this planet measures up to that.
Blessings.
2007-12-14 19:32:53
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answer #7
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answered by child of God 6
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The ruler addressed Christ as "Good Master," thus recognizing Christ as good, knowing that there is none good but God, and therefore acknowledging that Christ is God.
2007-12-14 19:49:53
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answer #8
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answered by joseph8638 6
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If you can understand what you typed and the English words and meaning, then you have your own answer and ask no more! Unless there are hidden mischievous intent - your sins will find you out!
2007-12-14 19:32:45
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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He was referring to His Father in Heaven. Jesus Christ was His Son. Heavenly Father and Jesus Christ are two separate, perfect, and immortal beings. He did not want the man to worship Him, but his Father In Heaven.
2007-12-14 19:33:56
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answer #10
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answered by catalyst 4
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