if the belief that our constitutional laws are based on laws in the bible given out by god, wouldn't they have to be consistent with the laws of countries in the middle east. islamic, christian, and jewish laws are all derived from the same part of the old testament, therefore shouldn't our laws be the same as the laws in places like iraq? but they are not. how come?
2007-12-14 11:23:20 · 15 answers · asked by just curious (A.A.A.A.) 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Constitution doesn't even mention any god. Many of the 10 Commandments would be unconstitutional to enact as laws. Many of the rest not illegal to break. Prohibition against "coveting", for example, is just thought police nonsense. You can't keep yourself from thinking something.
2007-12-14 11:27:07 · answer #1 · answered by nondescript 7 · 7⤊ 0⤋
No, our laws were based on Anglo-Saxon common law that had a heavy Germanic influence. The early Puritans tried to establish government according to the 10 commandments - the Founding Fathers wanted more freedom for the new nation and especially wanted to steer clear of a national religion.
Christians will also tell you that the sacrifice of Christ did away with Old Testament law and requirements for sacrifice.
2007-12-14 11:29:28 · answer #2 · answered by Aravah 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Each Country makes their own laws. God has nothing to do with it . but because the bible gives a good guidance for life some would have similar reasonings. We must all abide by the rules of the Country in which we live.
2007-12-14 11:31:24 · answer #3 · answered by jennifer h 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because the U.S. Constitution is NOT based on Christianity, nor on theism at all. It is based on the idea that people of very diverse backgrounds and interests can cooperate sufficiently to create a great nation if they respect liberty above all. That's why we have the Tenth Amendment. Remember that one?
"The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people."
It's an important one. Remember it.
2007-12-14 12:35:21 · answer #4 · answered by auntb93 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The laws in the US are based on the English common law, which developed over many centuries. (Exception: state laws in Louisiana, which derive from the Napoleonic code.) Religion was only a minor factor in any of this, as most of the issues have little or nothing to do with religious precepts.
2007-12-14 11:28:58 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 0⤋
The laws in the U.S. are based on British Common Law, which existed long before christianity was "introduced" to Britain.
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2007-12-14 11:34:11 · answer #6 · answered by YY4Me 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Cultures, customs, and time change the way people do things. In the USA, we follow English law, and in the Middle East they follow their own standards of law, whether it be Sharia law or more secular.
And, all laws do not come from your OT. Many come from a secular standard, by what is deemed fair at the time. People and understanding change.
2007-12-14 11:34:03 · answer #7 · answered by Shossi 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because the US constitution is not based on the bible in any way. There is no reference to God, Jesus or the bible in the constitution. The preamble says "We the People ... do ordain and establish this constitution."
The only references to religion at all are restrictive. I.e. the government may not prefer or require any specific religion or religion in general.
2007-12-14 11:30:49 · answer #8 · answered by DogmaBites 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
SOME of our most basic laws were based on the Judeo/Christian belief system. Not all of them. And Islam does not except the Bible (OT or NT) as God's inerrant word, so of course they don't base their laws on it.
What ever happened to education?
2007-12-14 11:29:00 · answer #9 · answered by Thrice Blessed 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because U.S. laws are NOT based on the bible. That's just what a lot of people erroneously believe.
2007-12-14 11:31:05 · answer #10 · answered by swordarkeereon 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋