Yes he does have to pay the fine. He was not cited for improper handwriting pressure, it was for speeding.
2007-12-14 09:59:01
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answer #1
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answered by CGIV76 7
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The signature is not an assumption of guilt or receipt of the citation. It is a promise to appear in court or pay the fine. So he still has to take care of the ticket, either by going to court or paying the fine.
2007-12-14 10:39:24
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answer #2
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answered by joseph b 6
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Yes, he still has to pay the fine. His copy may not have the signature, however the copy the officer has may. If he just blows it off he can go to jail instead of paying the fine.
2007-12-14 09:34:50
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answer #3
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answered by davidmi711 7
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The signature is only used for verification the citation was served. It has no impact on the actual charge. You still need to take care of the ticket.
Even though his copy has no signature, the department will still have it in the database, and can prove it was served.
2007-12-14 10:07:34
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answer #4
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answered by trooper3316 7
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well of coarse .....electronically they have your signing of the issue ,so dont be a pinhead and try to get out of paying.....that would be wrong and it would remain on your conscience for a long long time,you would want that especially if you really were speeding. the way you worded the question makes him guilty anyway,so you dont have a chance even in the court system........remember always admit your wrong actions when you are wrong.
2007-12-14 09:48:39
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answer #5
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answered by jhat 3
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Ya do the crime you pay the fine.. it's simple.. You need to stop spending all your effort in beating the system and pay more attention to the laws. You'd be much better off.
2007-12-14 10:01:58
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answer #6
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answered by Ditka 7
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Yes he will still have to pay the fine.
2007-12-14 12:32:53
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answer #7
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answered by Ashley P 2
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omg! yes.. copy of it is in the system already, also if he does not pay then the hassle of drives license getting suspended ($$) to reinstate..extra funds..=headaches... so tell him to stop trying to cheat out of it, drive safely and pay the dues.
2007-12-14 09:38:06
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answer #8
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answered by GIGI 3
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well the law may say he should have to because he is the one that supposudly messed it up. But in my opinion i dont think he should have to :)
2007-12-16 10:19:50
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes. Even assuming that his signature is SUPPOSED to be there, a summons is valid, signed or not.
2007-12-14 09:33:48
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answer #10
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answered by Citicop 7
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