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1 Corinthians 15:29. Excuse the version, it is the Living Bible version.

"If the dead will not be raised, then what point is there in people being baptized for those who are dead? Why do it unless the dead will someday rise again?"

That is very bizarre, being baptized for the dead. Did that only hold for the period at the time Christ died or does this hold true for us today?

2007-12-14 09:23:14 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Father K - Thanks for the better translation. lol I just reached over and grabbed my husband's easy reading bible.

2007-12-14 09:32:56 · update #1

To upside down O My God! - Uh ....... okay. What are you talking about, dude?

2007-12-14 09:35:15 · update #2

Kazoo M - Good link. Thanks.

2007-12-14 09:38:42 · update #3

Kiker - You are right. It is important to read any verse we study in context.

2007-12-14 10:17:59 · update #4

19 answers

Well sister you sure dug up an interesting one here for us:)
1 Cor 15:29
Otherwise what shall they who are baptized for the dead do? If the dead are actually not raised, why then are they baptized for them?

This whole chapter 15 deals with the whole matter of Resurrection. To those who doubt it to those who believe it. Paul used what the early believers were doing to prove a point.

Brother Paul was actually using this practice by SOME individual believers at the Church in COrinth to prove a point. He was not in any way condoning or approving this kind of practice in any way. The Mormons today use this verse for the baptism for their dead.

But in its context this should not have been an official matter generally practiced by the early churches, but it was a personal activity of some individual believers on behalf of dead persons for whom they were concerned, who might have believed in the Lord but not been baptized before they died. They did this in HOPE of the dead ones' being resurrected from the dead at the Lord's coming back.
Heres an intersting verse
1 Thess 4:16
Because the Lord Himself with a shout of command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet of God will descend from heaven and the dead in CHrist will rise first"

Also since in baptism resurrection is strongly signified..
Col 2:12
Buried together with Him in baptism in which also you were raised together with Him through the faith of the operation of God who raised Him from the dead.

BRother Paul used what they did to confirm the truth of resurrection. THIS DOES NOT MEAN HOWEVER sister that he sanctioned some believers being baptized for the dead.

BUt since so many were questioning this matter of the resurrection of the dead Paul was in essence telling them.. " So wait.. you guys don't believe in resurrection but yet your're doing baptisms for your dead!!"

He used this negative practice inorder to prove a point to these ones who questioned resurrection.

2007-12-14 11:30:25 · answer #1 · answered by Broken Alabaster Flask 6 · 4 0

Some interpret this as saying that those that are alive can be baptized on behalf of, in place of, as proxies to, those that already have passed.

The interpretation I get from the Holy Spirit is that in Christ's physical death, we receive the benefit of His resurrection when we bury our sins in the waters of full immersion baptism and rise out of our former self as a new creature, alive in Him. There is no chance to become resurrected in Christ after we physically die, if we do not receive His Holy Spirit prior to death. So the point Paul is trying to make is that, resurrection is a REAL event, that is offered to us as a gift when Christ physically died and rose in Spirit, so that we can partake in His victory over death. For those that doubt the dead can be resurrected, yes, the dead without Christ cannot be resurrected. BUT the dead in Christ can! (1 Thes 4:16)

2007-12-14 09:43:30 · answer #2 · answered by Dr. G™ 3 · 3 0

Weird!

The USCCB web site provides this explantion: "this practice is not further explained here, nor is it necessarily mentioned with approval, but Paul cites it as something in their experience that attests in one more way to belief in the resurrection."

IOW, it seems as through some Christians were getting themselves baptized on behalf of people who had died. Perhaps they felt that Mom, or Dad or Auntie Prudence would not experience life after death unless they were baptized. The next best thing, they thought, to getting baptized is to get baptized by proxy.

Much of Corinthians 15 is a challenge to Christians who say that there is no resurrection of the dead. This seems like an odd position, but evidently was a problem. Paul argues that if the dead cannot rise, then Christ did not rise. And if Christ did not rise, there Christian faith is pointless. Since Paul is extremely certain about Christ's resurrection, he sees the Corinthian position as crazy.

Reading between the lines, it seems that some Corinthians were saying they did not believe in resurrection of the dead. Yet, they were having themselves baptized on behalf of their dead relatives. To Paul, this is an illogical position. Seems silly to us, but perhaps Paul was dealingg with people who weren't all that bright -- at least who are unediucated or confused.

I am not aware of any Christian Church that allows baptism by proxy as is desxcibed here. However, I believe that the Mormon Church does something along this line, baptizing relatives who were not Mormons during their lifetimes. This is why Mormons are so keen on genealogy -- they want their whole family with them in Heaven!

2007-12-14 09:42:50 · answer #3 · answered by Jeanster 4 · 2 1

It may be that some of the Corinthians had for some reason been baptized for others who had died without the baptism. Paul did not approve or disapprove the unusual practice.

'if the dead do not rise...Why then are they baptized': To deny the Resurrection and yet be involved in such baptisms made no sense.

2007-12-14 09:42:22 · answer #4 · answered by Nina, BaC 7 · 2 0

It is important not to read one scripture and expect to understand what is being said. Would you read a news paper than way? So why do people expect to do the same with the Bible?
Scroll back to 1 Corinth. 15:25, where it actually starts.
The last enemy that will be destroyed by Jesus will be Death. So with Christ's accomplishment against death, we all will be raised from the dead....as death will have no authority over us, as God has given all authority to Jesus (who, in turn will give it unto God...this is an important note on the relationship we are to espouse here on earth with God, but that is another post). So the verse is question, taken within the context of the whole message is not a statement, but an inquiry by Paul. Evidence to this is in the very beginning of the verse you selected...as Paul opens with a statement, which wasn't his words but the sentiment of the Corinthains. Paul is essentially telling them the truth of Christ's reign and victory over death, and then reiterating their initial conceptions in light of this new information from Paul (this is his style, which can be annoying). So Paul is saying: "Hey, if you don't believe that we will be raised from the dead, and that Christ is Lord over death, than why do you even bother being baptised in the Holy Spirit because of a man that died and rose again three days later? If you believe He did this, as other have seen it with their own eyes, and that He did this for you and me; than why do you still doubt that He cannot destroy death for you?"

Hope this helps.
Paul's style of speech reminds me a little of Alan Greenspan. Very insightful, but very off-based. Just remember to look at the WHOLE message, rather than just one little tidbit from a verse...otherwise, you will never get the message.

2007-12-14 10:14:00 · answer #5 · answered by Kiker 5 · 2 1

In the first passage, it says that only the Father can predict when the day will come. But where does it say all three are coequal, if the Father made them all? Have you ever heard the phrase "Jesus sits at the right Hand of God"? That means you go through Jesus to get to God, but not that they were the same. Never does it say "Jesus is the right Hand, but rather "Jesus sits at the right Hand." Therefore he is answering as the Gateway, not as God Himself. Its a pretty big commitment to say you can be forgiven for speaking against Christ. Be glad God gave you that promise. Don't abuse it and ask permission to put down the Holy Spirit. Since Jesus is the Gateway to God, then God is obviously greater then Jesus. Jesus was born to be an equal with mankind. Therefore, the head of a man is indirectly the head of Christ. And since men and women or of mankind, the head of a women is indirectly her husband. This must mean that the head of Christ is of God's ranking. All humanity is placed under Jesus. This makes perfect sense, because Jesus is a God/Man. Then as I said like 5 times, Jesus is placed under God. Hebrews came to be Jews, and Judaism believes Jesus a prophet, but not the Messiah. Therefore, Hebrew has no need to apply the Son or the Holy Spirit.

2016-05-23 23:43:36 · answer #6 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

Baptism for the dead may appear to be strange to you at first, but it is in fact a true and essential part of the gospel of Jesus Christ.

Why is it so important you may ask...
It is important because a person must be baptized to be saved.

Mark 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.

BUT of course you know that there are many on the Earth who live and who are not able to be baptized...for very legitimate reasons (ex: a person living in China who never even hears of Jesus Christ in his lifetime)...

How could God damn them and yet be a fair God? After all they hadn't done anything wrong...

The answer is that ...they WILL get a chance to hear about Jesus Christ and the gospel...but for many it will not happen until they are in the next life...

After we die our body and spirit seperate...the body goes to the grave (or wherever) and the spirit goes into the post-mortal spirit world...in that place a person who has never heard of the gospel or of Jesus Christ will be taught...
and then they will have a chance to either accept it or not.

If they do accept the gospel....they need to be baptized...
(Mark 16:16 is a true scripture....baptism is required for each and every person who will receive salvation.)

and so the work may be performed for them by proxy...
A proxy works by someone taking the place of another...
for example: Jesus Christ taking the place of a person who sins...and suffering for them in their place.

An important thing to know however is that those who have an opportunity to accept the gospel here and reject it...they will not necessarily have another chance there....(they may or may not...)

http://scriptures.lds.org/en/tg/b/21

2007-12-14 12:49:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Sounds like the Bibles explanation of how those who died previous to Jesus dieing on the cross, can still get to heaven. Or there talking about the fourth movie in the 28 Days series.

2007-12-14 09:29:00 · answer #8 · answered by mitsoma97 2 · 1 0

"Otherwise, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them?" (1 Cor. 15:29, NASB)

There...that's better. Don't use paraphrases like the Living Bible for real study, dear one.

The Christians in the Church of Corinth had people running around saying that there was no resurrection from the dead. There were also pagan people around Corinth who were "baptizing" for the dead - and both beliefs are hogwash!! Paul's point was simple. The resurrection is a reality. It is going to happen when Jesus returns. Even the pagans believe in the resurrection, otherwise, why would they baptize for the dead?

2007-12-14 09:28:44 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 6 4

I think "those who are dead" in that context is a hypothetical; that if Christ were not risen, then the baptism for those who were thought to be alive would actually be for the dead, an obvious problem.

2007-12-14 09:42:50 · answer #10 · answered by w2 6 · 0 0

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