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I have my great grandmothers, my grandmothers, my mothers and my bible. I love to read and have read them all at least once. Each one is different and the words completely change the meaning of the phrase. Which one is correct. I have a dictionary from each time period as well and the new dictionary and a Christian dictionary no matter how I cross reference the bibles each changes the actual meaning of the bible's word. The bible is Gods word and should not have changed but it did and has so which one is correct. It makes the bible different the meaning different and how to live my life different. I asked my pastor and he said it just makes it easier to read but I also asked him about the meanings changing and he couldn't answer me but went on about Gods Love and how Gods laws are timeless but he didn't say which one, I gave up. Also after 1979-1980 the bible is totally different from the other ones.
Help

2007-12-14 03:04:46 · 16 answers · asked by Elizabeth M 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Example: The word homosexual only showed up in the 80's. Before it was sodomites and canonites which are child molesters or rapist not homosexuals. The only place the bible said anything about homosexuals was in Lev. "a man shall not lay with a man and a woman shall not lay with a woman", but it also says in Lev. That if your choldren are bad you should stone them to death. Why follow one and not the other?

2007-12-14 03:12:50 · update #1

Can some one tell me the truth?

2007-12-14 03:14:07 · update #2

Will the watch tower's bible tell me to stop having sex with women?

2007-12-14 03:17:06 · update #3

No when the bible was written Sodomize meant only rape and it was about Sodom and Gomorrah which was rape. When I have sex with women we don't sodomize each other so that is why I don't think its wrong. Women together are beautiful. That is why I am so confused?

2007-12-14 03:31:27 · update #4

16 answers

I only have the most modern versions of the KJV (the thee, thou, thy hurts my eyes), so I'm not sure what exactly you mean by "changed meaning". Any examples?

EDIT: To sodomize means to have anal intercourse. I don't intend to be offensive here, but isn't that how the homosexuals do it? No one uses the word "sodomite" nowadays, so it makes sense for a modern version to use the word "homosexual" which even a child understands.

2007-12-14 03:08:38 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

While yours sounds like an interesting situation, you fail to provide us with any substantial examples. Therefore, I wonder if you are not simply tripping over a ten dollar bill to pick up a nickel.

Apparently you are not a linguistics student, or you would quickly realize that language is constantly changing. Even in our own lifetimes we see changes in how language is used. What meant one thing as recently as twenty or thirty years ago means something entirely different today.

You must also realize that translation is not an exact science. There are nuances and shades of meaning in just about every word of every language that have to be considered whenever something is translated from one language to another. For example, twenty or so years ago three Spanish speaking teachers and I had quite a time trying to find the best way to translate, not just the word, but the intention of an author who used the word “calamity” in his writing. It took three days of intense discussion, theological and otherwise, to get that one word translated. And if we were to try and translate that same text today, we would probably have to go some of the same thing again, simply because our language has changed during the intervening years.

As far as I know, the King James Bible has remained pretty much consistent throughout the centuries since it was first published in 1611. What you need to do is read the stuff at the front of the Bible that comes before the text itself to see just what is going on. The original text will have the letter the original translators wrote to King James when they presented the manuscript to him. Subsequent revisions will also have prefaces for each modification to the original. If you find any of those, then you’re not reading the original version.

Ultimately, you need to realize that translators are trying to keep the concept of the “living word” alive by translating according to contemporary usage. They aren’t perfect, but they are sincere, and if you really are likewise, you’ll recognize and appreciate that.

2007-12-14 12:13:21 · answer #2 · answered by bruce d 2 · 1 0

You might now by now that the Bible was originally written in Hebrew and Greek; so any Bible you read in English (or any other language) is a translation. The different translations make up different versions of the Bible (KJ; NIV- which I recommend for you to read- etc.). And these translations have been updated as time has passed (scholars area of expertize).

It is rare a version of the Bible that you will see a different message from the others. What you can find is a more difficult version to understand, and a clearer one. One that uses simple language and another that has an archaic language. Except for the New World translation of the Holy Scriptures, practically all Bible versions have the same message of the Word of God. Maybe you just need someone to give you a real explanation in specific matters. If you like, get in touch with me for more information.

2007-12-14 11:52:46 · answer #3 · answered by garyenbaxter 2 · 0 0

I have noticed the same thing, the old authorized king james bible is being changed every year and should not be. Man is messing with Gods word, and there will be a price to pay, look at the world today, enough said, I ask my pastor the same thing and he gave me about the same answer that yours gave you, all these pastors go by is what they were taught at what ever college they went to, thats why very few people are getting saved. What we as Christians have to do to day is let the Holy Spirit reveal to us the true meaning of what Jesus is trying to say by the scriptures. The Holy Spirit knows, and it guides us as we read on what the good Lord wants to show us that day. The Bible is Spiritual, and we must look at it that way, thats why if you are not saved you cannot in any way make any sense out of the Bible because of what you are talking about. The power of the Spirit is gone from the word. Jesus obviously is not happy with us, but if a person is truly seeking Christ we know that God will open their eyes to the truth and they shall be saved, just like we were. I read the Scofield KJV and they have actually changed his comments to fit the world today, and he's been dead for years, I wonder what he would say???

2007-12-14 11:19:45 · answer #4 · answered by victor 7707 7 · 0 1

ah ha! lol the a#1 reason so many christians leave christianity. do a bit of research on the bible (not in the bible, it sounds like you've done pretty well there. I mean the history of the rewritings)... If you want to follow that faith, you should try to get a true translation of the dead sea scrolls (the ones God gave to Moses). Everything else, is simply story books. (here come the thumbs downs!!!) The books that contain 'the words of Jesus' were written 300 YEARS after his death. No one that was there was still around then. ;) Many people say, that if you want to find an unadulterated copy of the Bible, you should get a Catholic bible, NOT a KJV. King James wanted a divorce, but his preists told him he couldn't because the bible specifically frowned on it. So, he had it re-written. (Again, more thumbs down!!! YAAAY!!lol) It was called the Council of Nicea. Here's a very unbiased site. do some reading. ;) http://www.tertullian.org/rpearse/nicaea.html

good luck! hope you work out your questions!!

2007-12-14 11:16:37 · answer #5 · answered by Silver Thunderbird 6 · 2 1

I must say that that amazes me to here such a thing. I have never come across that before. Hmmm what to do... well o.k. you say that the words can change the course of your life be the judge as to which one is right or more right.

http://groups.yahoo.com/group/sabbathrest7/
If you would be interested in sharing more of this dilemma with me I am extremely interested in knowing more of the differences in the bibles.

2007-12-14 11:31:47 · answer #6 · answered by SabbathDayFreedom 4 · 0 0

Thats where I question it all who's right... Catholics? Baptist , Lutheren? Muslim, latter day saints , Morman,, all different Bibles , Hard to Figure one creator with so many different beliefs , and, versions of the "GOOD BOOK" which it is a good book of stories... Ever seen the movie "JOHNNY DANGEROUSLY" great movie but, what I am getting to is the scene about "hearing it through the grapevine" thats exactly my opinion of the Bible, someone told a story and, it grew into the biggest fish ever caught.. sorry if I have offended anyone, I do believe in God just question the methods of praise

2007-12-14 11:13:56 · answer #7 · answered by wolfieguitarman 3 · 1 2

The dead sea scrolls had only one difference from my bible
The New King James Version 1985.
ISAIAH 53;11
He shall see the travail of His soul, (he will see the light of Life) and be satisfied.
By His Knowledge My Righteous Servant shall justify many, for He shall bear their iniquities . The parentheses indicate the difference.
That confirms the accuracy of The Old Testament.

2007-12-14 11:16:48 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

You are correct! Since it's first printing in 1611........there have been more than 35,000 changes.
If you want the most accurate to compare with, try ours.
The New World Translation published by the Watch tower Bible and Tract society.
Acclaimed world wide for it's accuracy, in many languages.
Your pastor may be a fine man, but he cannot answer what is beyond his knowledge........We can.

2007-12-14 11:15:21 · answer #9 · answered by Wisdom 6 · 3 4

Thats the whole point the bible has been changed around so many times no one knows what it originally was meant to say. It was changed many times even before the kjv.

2007-12-14 11:12:27 · answer #10 · answered by Tamsin 7 · 1 3

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