On the cross, Jesus said "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?"
This (and a few other examples) appears to me to mean that there was a separation between God's mind and Jesus' mind. If God and Jesus are one being (Holy Spirit, one being in three parts all God) why would this separation occur?
2007-12-13 15:31:15 · 27 answers · asked by sweetbearsg2003 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I am Catholic and according to the Catholic church yes he did say that on the cross...with a question mark and everything.
And answering by saying he wasn't real or just because is not take more than two brain cells to rub together. Think hard, even if it hurts, past your two line justifications. Just cause you don't believe in Jesus and/or God doesn't mean that I can't ask questions to better explore my faith.
2007-12-13 15:53:13 · update #1
Hello....said I was Catholic...not asking if Jesus was God...try reading the question before preaching to the converted!
2007-12-13 15:56:24 · update #2
That separation happened because at that moment Jesus took upon him the sins of the world. He was without sin and never felt that separation before. So he was sacrificed for us all but he took are sins and cast them into the sea of forgetfulness never to be brought before us again if we repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ.
God can not be with sin and Jesus took our sins upon him that is why the separation.
Jesus conquered death and now sits on the right hand of the Father.
2007-12-13 15:38:43 · answer #1 · answered by furgetabowdit 6 · 3⤊ 3⤋
I admire your courage to question this aspect of the trinity. The Athanasian Creed (upon which the Trinity is based) states, in part:
(Quote)
And the catholic faith is this: That we worship one God in Trinity, and Trinity in Unity, neither confounding the persons, nor dividing the substance.
And in the Trinity none is before or after another; none is greater or less than another, but all three Persons are co-eternal together and co-equal. So that in all things, as is aforesaid, the Unity in Trinity and the Trinity in Unity is to be worshipped.
He therefore that will be saved is must think thus of the Trinity. (unquote)
As you have realized from Matt. 27:46 & Mark 15:34 (and the other scriptures you mention but have not referenced) God's mind and Jesus' mind are separate. This is because they are separate persons. The Bible says the Father begot (made, produced, created) the Son. So there was a time when the Son did not exist (before he was begotten). There was also a time (parts of three days) that the Son also did not exist because he was dead. (The ransom would not have been truly paid if he had not actually died.) On the third day he was resurrected (which the dictionary defines as "restored to life; raised from death) or brought back to life by his Father.
So, because he is separate from his Father he could pray to his Father, as well as call out to his Father, "My God, My God, why have your forsaken me?"
2007-12-13 18:34:59 · answer #2 · answered by Jill 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The separation was between God and Jesus in His humanity. He had to bear the sin of the world on the cross, so God did forsake him.
2007-12-13 15:47:40 · answer #3 · answered by 1901pink 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 Timothy 3:16
Beyond all question, the mystery of godliness is great:
He appeared in a body (who? God)
was justified in the Spirit
was seen by angels
was preached among the gentiles
was believed int he world
was taken up in glory
2007-12-13 15:46:20 · answer #4 · answered by carlos 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is God manifest in the flesh. God is His heavenly Father, but they are both one - Jesus IS God.
1 John 5:7 - For there are three that bear record in heaven,the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
2007-12-13 15:40:15 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Jesus is the Son of God, not God the son. Jesus asking " My God My God why have you forsaken me is in direct prophecy of those words uttered at ...
(Psalm 22:1) My God, my God, why have you left me? [Why are you] far from saving me.
Jesus was definitely not crying out to Himself.
2007-12-13 15:48:59 · answer #6 · answered by conundrum 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That was the moment when Jesus was separated from God the Father and bore the sins of the world.
1Pe 2:24 Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.
2007-12-13 15:44:53 · answer #7 · answered by Doug 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
in these comments jesus was acting like a human to finish his plan and safe the world on the cross...it was part of his plan...the biggest proof that jesus was the word and soul of God when you know that HE DID NOT HAVE A SIN and we all know that normal HUMAN SINS....(Only God does NOT sin)...also he did a lot of mircle things when he made the dead people live, when he walked in the river, he gave the sight to blind people and so on..
2007-12-13 15:41:55 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
There was no such separation. That statement was a quote from a Messianic psalm. If you read the psalm (in the Septuagint, especially) you will see why Jesus said it. He was not saying that God had foresaken him. He was admitting to the world that he was the Messiah prophesied by David.
2007-12-13 15:38:23 · answer #9 · answered by NONAME 7 · 1⤊ 3⤋
i believe this to be a mistranslation......i believe in the writings of Jocephus we find what Jesus really yelled, I thank you Father that Thou has saved me for this moment......as far as other discrepancies....you didnt list any
2007-12-13 15:56:11 · answer #10 · answered by standing when 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋