Is one of Judge Judy's orders sufficient to get a marshall? Isn't her show a private arbitration service?

Question

She keeps talking about "cutting an order" and that this is enough to summon a marshall to enforce it. (Today, she told a plaintiff that was how they could get their dog back.) What is the responsibility of a marshall to respond to something other than a court duly constituted and authorized by governmental legialation? For that matter, how about anyone else who has not agreed to submit to her jurisdiction? Could she issue an order that anybody other than her litigants have to obey? Doesn't sound right to me.

Answer 1

Every order must be supported with valid reason in order to be justified.

Answer 2

Before going into arbitration (any arbitration, not just TV arbitration), they sign a contract waiving their right to go to court and agreeing to be bound by the arbiter's decision instead. The prevailing party can then enter the decision in court, and any county judge will enforce it as if it was his own decision. The judge enforcing the decision does not have the right to modify it.

Answer 3

Arbitration is legally binding in some cases . . . you can assign legal rights and agree in advance that the outcome of arbitration will replace other means of adjudication. For instance, you can waive jurisdictional rights, right(s) of appeal, right to jury . . . basically you can waive any legal right pre-trial. I'm sure they have both parties sign such waiver's before they appear on the show.

Answer 4

you are correct. It is a private arbitration. It has no legal jurisdiction whatsoever. The parties agree to appear, and they agree to submit to the verdict. Otherwise she has nothing. She is a horrible little troll, and her husband was disbarred in NY as the worst judge to ever sit onthe bench.