Evangelical fear of admitting that Jesus Baptized? John 1:33, John 3:22, John 3:23, John 3:26, Luke 3:16.?

Question

Jn. 1:33, Jn. 3:22, Jn. 3:23, Jn. 3:26 and Lk. 3:16 all point to one simple conclusion. Jesus himself DID baptize people. In all probabiltiy, he baptized at first and passed the job along to his apostles as the crowds grew larger. For the context of this question... Chaper 7, http://gospelenigma.com

Why is it that so many denominations try to dodge this obvious indication that Jesus did baptize? Is it because this early baptising was called the "Baptism of Repentance for the forgivenness of sins"? (Luke 3:3)

Both Jesus and John were ENTHUSASTIC supporters of this early baptism for the "forgiveness of sins." Are evangelicals trying to hide the fact that something rather important was going on with regards to the forgiveness of sins, LONG BEFORE the crucifixion???

Answer 1

Here's some info in support of your Q and also to add to Arewethere...'s info:
Also there was the MIKVAH that certain sects of the Hebrew nation used to ritually 'cleanse' and 'purify' themselves prior to religious celebrations. The MIKVAH was/is a small pool that is filled with 'holy' water and you descend into it and walk underwater and ascend out of it 'cleansed'. Prior to the entrance to the pool, you remove your outer garments (you shed the earthly worldy thinking and behaving, so to speak) Then you go about your celebrations. So, in other words, you are cleansed to rejoice and worship. On one level, it is a community ritual that signifies a deeper 'inner' cleansing of thoughts and whatever is 'unholy' that you've been carrying around inside of you (resentments, feeling superior or less than, revenge, fear, anger, envy, jealousy, etc.).

ON THE STRICTLY HUMAN SIDE OF IT:
Jesus was born into a time and place that had all those teachings abounding. Mary and her mother, Anne, are thought, by some scholars to have also been trained by the Essenes. It is believed by some that Joseph, with all his travels doing excellent carpentry, and taking his step-son with him, would have encountered many different cultural beliefs. Jesus, the boy, would have absorbed a cross-cultural education this way. (not to mention that their stay in Egypt would have been educational - many great philosophers and lots of scrolls, etc available). Due possibly to lack of electricity back then, there appears to have been alot more cultures diety-based than not, and so Jesus was exposed to all of it. Is it not then possible that he was familiar with this form (baptism)? And is it not possible that he was directed by God to perform baptism in such and such a way?

"The Father and I are one... The kingdom of Heaven is within." (I'm led to throw those in at this point)

;Edit: Also we have only the 3 years of Jesus' ministry to look at in the Bible. Whatever Jesus did prior to that time has not yet been written about that I know of. This is not to refute the Bible in any way. There is that Scriptural line that says that so many activities and miracles were performed that they could not be contained in this Book.

If people, including Christ believers, want to have something to debate and become controversial about, they will find it.
From my understanding, that is NOT what Jesus taught or exemplified. "What is that to you, follow me' HE said. Which may be where this Q sprang from.

Just wanted to add some more food for thought to this Q.

Answer 2

Baptism pre-existed Jesus and John using it. It was used for people who were converting to Judaism, as a marker to themselves and to others of their conversion. That's why John and Jesus used baptism - as a marker for people turning back to God. It doesn't mean that it makes the crucifixion unnecessary. Look at Matthew 3:11; Mark 1:8; Luke 3:16; John 1:26 etc. Baptism with water was a way of preparing people for the forgiveness that would come with the crucifixion. Baptism with water was a symbol of forgiveness, but didn't actually make anyone forgiven by itself. It was pointing towards when Jesus would 'baptise with the Holy Spirit and with fire', ie a much deeper, more real kind of baptism, which would actually change people. People before the crucifixion could be forgiven, but only because of what would happen at the crucifixion, which would apply for all time.

Answer 3

how could he baptize at first than pass it down to his apostles when John the Baptist was baptising already?

edit: hold on I got more for ya

edit: You say John 1:33, well if you would read it John is the one baptizing their, it is talking about the account when Jesus was baptized BY JOHN. Luke 3:16 is talking about when you get baptized this is what happens, it is not talking about Jesus himself baptizing people. Now for John 3:22 and so forth it does seem that He was baptizing people because it says "After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized". So saying and baptized that could be referring to Christ also, not sure. But I really want to point out those 2 scriptures that you cited, as far as Him baptizing I don't remember that being an issue anywhere?

Answer 4

OK, lets look at John 1:33 and Luke 3:16

John 1:33 I would not have known him, except that the one who sent me to baptize with water told me, 'The man on whom you see the Spirit come down and remain is he who will baptize with the Holy Spirit.'

Luke 3:16 John answered them all, "I baptize you with water. But one more powerful than I will come, the thongs of whose sandals I am not worthy to untie. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire.

In both of those, John clearly states this his baptism is with water, but that the baptism Jesus will perform is not. It is a very different type of baptism done with the Holy Spirit. You will find the first incidence of this baptism with the Holy Spirit in Acts 2:1-4. There was no water involved, nor is it what we normally think of as "baptism". Rather it is an infilling of the Holy Spirit.

On to John 3

23Now John also was baptizing at Aenon near Salim, because there was plenty of water, and people were constantly coming to be baptized. 24(This was before John was put in prison.) 25An argument developed between some of John's disciples and a certain Jew over the matter of ceremonial washing. 26They came to John and said to him, "Rabbi, that man who was with you on the other side of the Jordan—the one you testified about—well, he is baptizing, and everyone is going to him."

Here it is stated by some of the Jews that Jesus was baptizing in the Jordan. However, in the verses that follow (the beginning of John 4), the author makes it plain that the Jews who stated that were mistaken. The Bible correctly records their mistake.

1The Pharisees heard that Jesus was gaining and baptizing more disciples than John, 2 although in fact it was not Jesus who baptized, but his disciples.

Had Jesus been baptizing, then John's statement that he was NOT would be a contradiction, and the Bible would be in error. But John in the first three words of verse 2 makes it clear that he is correcting this mistatement that the Jews had made in chapter 3.

So there is no Bible evidence to support Jesus baptizing people in water.

Sorry...

Answer 5

Mark 1:9 And it came to pass in those days, that Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized of John in Jordan. After reading the versus in question I noticed that Herod made a statement about what he was going to do with John. Not that he had already done it.

Answer 6

Huh???? There is no issue here. So what if Jesus baptized folks. That doesn't change anything. Everyday people were forgiving sins long before Jesus came on the scene - at least those committed between people.

Answer 7

Christ's incarnation was about resacntifing the world. This plays into a sacramental view of Christianity. He is present in the Eucharist as the Eucharist exists both in the current time and in the past and future- in the same way with baptism we are buried and resurrected with Christ.
It was not just about being sacrificed to appease the father's anger- Christ could have killed himself with out the incarnation if it was the case.
His incarnation united the human and Devinne natures.
his baptism resanctified the waters...when he healed he said your sins have been forgiven as he had the authority to heal people of their short comings and iniquities his death was not a sacrifice to atone to an angry father it was to reunite the dead with himself- the source of life. Christ is the way the truth and the life simply by walking among us he blessed and sanctified us for all times as he exists in all times.

Answer 8

Sure He baptised people, does someone say He didn't? Weird.

Hey, do you know where Jesus and John got the idea for baptism? It has been said that both of them were instructed in Qumran by the Essenes. In the Qumran monastary they found baths where the Essenes would ritually bathe every day, and they would "baptize" themselves of their sins daily.

Cool, eh?

Answer 9

John 4:2 seems to say that the Messiah did NOT baptize in water. Speaking for myself, I want my understanding to be in harmony with Scripture. If I cannot be certain from Scripture, I am content to say "I don't know"

Answer 10

I don't remember which verse was it but he said "You were baptised in water by John but I will baptise you with the Spirit." All things Jesus did must be followed by Christians except in the part that he was crucified.