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A LORD of LORDS suggests more than one LORD, of which one is The Lord of Lords and The King of Kings; the only wise God of foolish/wise Gods, the only true God of false/true Gods.

Is one LORD perhaps merciless, and one perhaps merciful?

Why does Psalmist David say combing "My God my God" results in feeling forsaken? Why does one God say I will forsake you: Jeremiah 23:39 and one says I will never forsake you: Deuteronomy 31:6,8 & Joshua 1:5 & Hebrews 13:5?

2007-12-12 12:25:35 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Why does Amos 5:18 say the day of the LORD is darkness and not light; But 1John 1:5 says that God is light, and not darkness?

If God is a Spirit and we're told try (test) the Spirits, then is there more than one God to try, such as Law and Grace; To see which is false and which is true?

2007-12-12 12:28:31 · update #1

The blessed and ONLY Potentate suggests one of more than one.

Two Gods are opposed about them:
- conclude all in unbelief: sinners all
- not impute sin to them: 2Cor 5:19
Obviously a contradiction about them
Mixing the twain makes an oxy-moron
If God is twain, then God is bi-polar

What about COMPARING spiritual things (laws) with spiritual (grace)?

2007-12-13 00:33:42 · update #2

2 answers

A lot of that goes back thousands of years ago. Many books that are in today's Bible were written for different reasons. Many of the same stories are in different religions. Many of the ancient people saw the commandment of "Do not have any gods before me" as saying make me your #1 god. To really know the meaning of your question would take some major studing and reading.

2007-12-12 12:32:15 · answer #1 · answered by mrfatso42 4 · 1 1

Your second paragraph contains an unusual perspective, namely wondering (perhaps?) if the LORD is merciless or merciful. The answer is both. Time and again, even in the Old Testament, one may read of God's mercy and long-suffering. The merciless, as perceived, side comes only after all else has been exhausted.

Concerning your last paragraph, David was simply echoing a cry of his heart in Psalm 22. God never forsook David, but David felt that way. The only exception was when God did forsake Jesus, while Jesus was being crucified. God is too holy to look on sin, and when Jesus became sin, God the Father couldn't bear to look at it.

The two passages, from Amos and First John, are talking about two different things. John is describing God in one aspect: light, compared to darkness. Amos was speaking hundreds of years before describing a period called the DAY of the Lord, not the Lord Himself. John's Gospel describes a series of conflicts between light and darkness, too. Have you read it recently?

2007-12-12 12:44:11 · answer #2 · answered by Brother Jonathan 7 · 1 1

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