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2007-12-12 08:52:18 · 24 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Jack M, how do people write about and to something that ain't there yet?

2007-12-12 08:57:28 · update #1

24 answers

I have never seen so much ignorance of Church history being spouted. this has to have the only source in someones imagination. Read the Bible, the Catholic Church started at Pentecost and not 300 years later at the Council of Nicaea. the Bible came about in the late 4th and early 5th centuries as a result of the three African Synods.

In Christ
Fr. Joseph

2007-12-13 05:36:34 · answer #1 · answered by cristoiglesia 7 · 1 0

Hello? Is there anyone home? judging from the answers your getting no.

The "Church" predates Christianity by several hundred years. You are aware that the assembly in the wilderness was the "Church". Just because they didn't have a fake Jesus (I'm not saying that Yahshua is fake just most "Christians" concept of Him and thus me using the name Jesus instead of Yahshua to differentiate the two) and buildings with pagan symbols all over it with man made traditions doesn't mean it didn't exist.

You all need to take your head out of the tunnel its in and look at the broad scope of the bible instead of your narrow little view you have decided to take.

The "Church" predates the New Testament because God first established His covenant before there was a "Church" And it goes back to before Moses since the covenant was made with Abraham.

2007-12-12 09:08:32 · answer #2 · answered by Tzadiq 6 · 3 0

because the new testament wasn't written by one guy it is a collection of books about the life and teachings of Christ

the church predates it because the church made it

The original texts were written in Koine Greek by various unknown authors after c. AD 45 and before c. AD 140. Its 27 books were gradually collected into a single volume over a period of several centuries.

and was created when the catholic church realized that in order to become an official religion the needed an official text so a group of cardinals got together and read through hundreds of stories of Christ, his life, and his teachings, and weeded out the unnecessary and the repetitive thus creating the new testament.

2007-12-12 09:05:06 · answer #3 · answered by kevin g 2 · 2 2

Because the Ekklesia means the Believers,not a church buiding.Old Testament Believers are a part of the church as well.EZQ1 is correct!

2007-12-12 09:00:11 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Technically there was no "church" -according to scholars anyways, until the Council of Nicaea when a large group of male followers came together and declared their belief system regarding God, Jesus and his divinity, etc. Scholars believe that when this happened, now we can officially call them "orthodox believers/church." Up until this point, and even afterward, there were many many groups of followers who practiced their own beliefs and rites independent of one another.

The New Testament is a body of material, collected after the fact. Many groups followed maybe one or two gospels, some from the NT as we know it, and some of the gnostic stuff as well.

So yes, followers predate the New Testament stuff - the first documents we have, NT documents or gnostic, didn't come until 45-50 years after Jesus died. But as a whole united church under one doctrine, that didn't officially happen until the first Council of Nicaea.

2007-12-12 08:58:44 · answer #5 · answered by SisterSue 6 · 1 4

The Church doesn't predate the New Testament. Rather, the New Testament IS written and inspired testimony to the Church's beginning.
For instance, Saint Paul's many letters to the Romans, Ephesians, etc. are all part of the formation of the early Church and are included in the New Testament.

2007-12-12 09:06:19 · answer #6 · answered by logician2000 1 · 0 6

The "New testomony" grow to be written to and for Christians. Christ based the unique Christian faith whilst he poured out the holy spirit on the one hundred twenty disciples in that larger room in 33 C.E. 50 days after he ascended to heaven.

2016-12-31 08:27:38 · answer #7 · answered by groschel 3 · 0 0

Prior to the Council of Nicea, approximately 325 to 345 E.C., when the newly established and state recognized Christian church (i.e., the Holy Roman Catholic Church)was created, there were many and various Gospels circulating throughout the Roman Empire, the MIddle East, Northern Africa, Southern Europe, etc. in a variety of languages (Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic, Coptic Egyptian, etc.)

At the previously mentioned council, in a move to appease the secular Roman authorities, and to solidify the power base of those who were deemed the head or fathers of the Church, it was decided ( after a great deal of conflict, hostility and outright fighting) that only certain Gospels would be accepted as authentic.

All gospels that were not in Greek were banned and determined to be heretical. This was especially true of any anad all gosples in Hebrew and Aramaic, which were ordered burned along with anyone and everyone who possessed a copy of them and / or used them to teach, despite the fact that they had been used for nearly 300 years for that purpose.

During this same council, the doctirne of the Trintiy was established as dogma, as was the dual nature of Jesus which proclaimed him both God and man.

Further, the role of women in the church was regulated to that of "second class citizens", at best and to outright "property" at the worst.

Liturgically, the vestments worn by the "priest" became similar to the clothing worn by the Roman secular authorities, priest and most religious began to shave their beards in accordance with the fashions of Rome.

The code of Canon Law, still in its infancy, began to be formalized and developed.

Hence, when the church was "offically born", so was the Gospel, some 300 years after the fact, using translations of gospels (most originals had been lost), forgoing the language which Jesus would have actually spoken in his day to day life during his mission and with the church creating itself in the image and likeness of Rome..trans sic gloria mundo.

2007-12-12 09:15:39 · answer #8 · answered by Big Bill 7 · 0 3

Because there IS a "church" that existed long BEFORE the NT, thats why!

This is a very astute question as it should make people realize that every time the word "church" is used in scripture, its NOT referring to the church as we know it today (ie: the body of Christ)

Which Church are YOU a part of?


Scripture Reading: Ephesians 1:22, 23

Many Christians believe that every time the word "church" appears in Scripture, it refers to the same thing. This is unfortunate, for this thinking has led to much error and confusion.



The fact is, THREE "CHURCHES" can be distinguished in Scripture.

The first church we find in the Bible is "the church in the wilderness" (Act 7: 38).

This was the Old Testament congregation of Israel. Some would object to calling Israel a church, but this is exactly what the Holy Spirit calls her. In fact, the Hebrew word for "congregation", found numerous times in the Old Testament, is equivalent to the Greek word for "church" (see Psalm 22:22 & Hebrews 2:12). Yet, the Old Testament Israelite church is not the church of today.

The next church we read of in Scripture is yet future.

Christ spoke of it in Matthew 16:18 where Christ told Peter, "I will build my church; and the gates of Hell (Gk. 'hades') shall not prevail against it." This church is still future, for it is begun with a resurrected people. The "gates of hades" is not a reference to Satan's forces, as many teach, but a reference to the entrance (and exit) of the place of the dead (cf. Isaiah 38:10 where "gates of the grave" is literally "the gates of sheol" - sheol being the Hebrew equivalent to the Greek hades).

The third church is the church of today.

Paul calls it "the Church which is His body" (Ephesians 1:22, 23). All true believers today are members of the Body of Christ, the one true Church in this dispensation of grace. Are you a member of this Church?

2007-12-12 08:58:49 · answer #9 · answered by goinupru 6 · 1 6

Because it was actually Paul (nee Saul) who wrote and edited the New Testament as he was creating the church by converting the gentiles, and even faced down Peter eventually in Jerusalem, concerning the "circumcision" issue and the legalism issue. (What God has called clean, do not call unclean). Therefore the church "began" in a sense, when Christ arose from the dead. And the New Testament was written as Paul was spreading the church around the Mediterranean, and ended (Revelation of John) when the last face-witness died.

2007-12-12 09:00:54 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 6

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