John 1:15-18: 1) Jesus was born after John the Baptist, so what did John mean when he said, “He was before me”

Question

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John 1:15 John bore witness of Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is preferred before me, for He was before me.’”

John 1:16 And of His fullness we have all received, and grace for grace.

John 1:17 For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.

John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
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More Questions:
2) Why the contrast between the “law” (Moses) and “grace and truth” (Jesus Christ)?
3) Why is it said that the law was “given” through Moses, but grace and truth “came” through Jesus Christ?
4) If Jesus was and is God, what does it mean that Jesus Christ “has declared” God?

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http://www.pbministries.org/books/pink/John/john_03.htm

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EMVej6QXwhk

Answer 1

I 'll try my best to answer. I do hope i'll know in the end if I am on the right track.. :-)

(1) Jesus is the "word" mentioned in John 1:1-2 and therefore is of being before John was of being. He came before John because Jesus already existed even before creation (John 1:3).

(2) The law of Moses condemns (John 5:15) and the grace and truth of Christ saves (John 3:17). We know what is right & wrong because of the law, but we will be declared righteous only through Christ for He will be the judge (John 5:22)

(3) Moses was the chosen leader to establlish the nation of Isreal, the people of God. So the law was given to Moses as a guide so that God's people will remain in Him. But man is sinfull (Romans 3: 10-18) So Jesus was sent, the son of God sent to be the sacrificial lamb to bear man's sin, to fulfill the law (Matthew 5:17). Grace and truth came through Him because He is our redeemer.

(4) Jesus acknowledges the Father and makes Him (God) known to man through Him (Jesus) John 5: 19

This is very intresting and quite a challenge. Thank you :-)

Answer 2

Jesus in spirit was the first born of God the Father, but John wanted to be first, instead John was sent as a witness for the Christ. To be a witness you have to be there from before the very beginning until after the end. John was there before Jesus, but Jesus was first.

John the Baptist was Moses, Elijah, Isaiah, and was the author of the Gospel according to the Apostle John, the 3 letter of John and the Book of Revelation.

Jesus brought us the truth concerning God, Moses and the prophets.
In John 1:17 Jesus is telling us that the words Moses spoke were given to Moses, but the words given to him were lies.
In John 1:18 Jesus it telling us that Moses did not hear nor see God the Father
In John 3:14 Jesus is telling us that the voice that Moses heard was the voice of Satan, the serpent., and Moses worshiped the serpent, as shown in Luke 4:6

4) Jesus is the Son of God, Jesus is LORD God, but he is God only because we called Him God as Moses called the serpent God.
God is a spirit, he can not be seen nor heard, by men, Jesus is the image of God, that is Jesus is of the same nature of God the Father, but more specific, the Words Jesus spoke and the things He did, were not his own, Jesus spoke and did the things His Father told Him to speak and do. Therefore, if you know Jesus, you also know the Father, because they are the same, they are one with one another.

Answer 3

1) John 1:1 & Genesis 1:1-2
2) Law is "works" and Grace is gift of life through Jesus -many many verses.
3) For much the same reason the twelve tribes were in external bondage in Egypt. They were in internal bondage under the law.
And
Romans Chapters 3-5
and
Through the sin offering of Jesus on the alter of the cross.
4) declared = manifest of God - same as Immanuel = God with us. The Father made known by the Word in Flesh.

Answer 4

And when John states that “in the beginning the Word was,” it means that the Word was the beginning of Jehovah’s creative works, “the beginning of the creation by God.” (Revelation 3:14) His preeminent position among God’s creatures gives real basis for his being called “a god,” a mighty one. Isaiah 9:6 calls him “Mighty God,” though not Almighty God.

Verse 14 reasons: “So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father.” On earth, Jesus reflected God’s glory as only God’s firstborn Son could. Hence, in a unique way, he was best qualified to reveal God and His purposes to the people.

the apostle John writes in verse 15: “John [the Baptizer] bore witness about him, yes, he actually cried out, this was the one who said it, saying: ‘The one coming behind me has advanced in front of me, because he existed before me.’” John the Baptizer was born some six months before Jesus’ birth as a human. But Jesus did far more works than John, so that he advanced in front of John in every way. And John acknowledged that Jesus existed before him, since Jesus had a prehuman existence.

Answer 5

Jesus existed before either of them was ever born.

Jesus even said "Before Abraham was, I AM" (referring to himself).

Furthermore, the Law can not give life, nor can it stop someone from breaking said Law. The only power the Law has is to point out when we sin, and the penalty. But the Law, which came 430 years AFTER the promise can no annul the promise. If there were a Law that could actually GIVE life, there would be no need for a new covenant, or for Jesus to come to earth.

"No man has seen God at any time" That is why Jesus came - to declare or demonstrate God and what He is like. Jesus was clarifying all the false and misinformation about God that had been going around. Jesus came from the very heart of God to openly expose or display God to the people.

In fact, Jesus even said "When you've seen me, you've seen the Father", that is to say, if you REALLY want to know what God is like, how He would react in any given situation, watch me, because when you've seen MY reactions and attitudes, you've seen the Father's. Furthermore, Jesus said "I only do those things I see the Father do." That is why they wanted to stone him, because that is blasphemy to claim such equality with God.

Answer 6

John was aware of the fact that Jesus was God who became a man and that He had always existed.

Law and grace (God's unfailing love and faithfulness) are both aspects of God's nature that He uses in dealing with us. Moses emphasized God's law and justice, while Jesus Christ came to highlight God's mercy, love, faithfulness, and forgiveness. Moses could only be the giver of the law, while Christ came to fulfil the law (Mat 5:17). The nature and will of God were revealed in the law; now the nature and will are revealed in Jesus Christ. Rather than coming through cold stone tablets, God's revelation now comes through a person's life. As we get to know Christ better, our understanding of God will increase.

God communicated through various people in the Old Testament, usually prophets who were told to give specific messages. But no one ever saw God. Jesus is both God and the Father's unique Son. In Christ, God revealed his nature and essence in a way that could be seen and touched. In Christ, God became a man who lived on earth.

Answer 7

He was before John because Christ is eternal. "Before Abraham was, I AM." John 8:58
The plan of God was always grace and truth but this could only be brought to complete fulfillment through the sacrifice of Jesus. The law taught us of sin - Jesus paid the price for our sin.
Jesus declares God in the sense that He is the fullest and final revelation of God to mankind. God in human flesh has shown us the reality of who He is.

Answer 8

Concerning the first 3, there is plenty of good information given already.
Concerning #4, I gotta chime in.
When it says that Jesus Christ "has declared" God, here is what it means.
No man hath seen God at any time, however, God wanted man to know Him and know of Him.
That is He wanted man to know that He is a loving God, a forgiving God, and yet a God that demands justice and holiness.
Jesus said if you had seen Him, you have seen the Father. In other words, He was the manifestation of God to man so that man can understand on his own level Who God is.
"1Ti 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh,..."

Answer 9

It means John recognized Him as the eternal Son of God.

Not sure if I understand your subsequent questions, but I'll give them a shot.

The contrast between Mosaic law and Jesus's truth: the law was unkeepable, with too many rules and regulations to keep track of. Jesus supplanted all that with his New Commandment: Love one another as I have loved you.

God gave Moses the OT law, but now that a living love from God is the NT law, it flows through Jesus as a living entity: the Holy Spirit.

Sorry, but I dunno what "has declared" God means, so I'll have to pass on #4.

Answer 10

"Before" means pre-eminent, and it also strongly implies divine pre-existence. John did not exist before he was born. But Jesus, as "Son" of God, existed before HE was born.

The "Law" means the "Torah" which was traditionally regarded as written by Moses under the inspiration of God. Perfect observance of the commandments of the Law was regarded as the ultimate goal of every Jew. But here in the Christian scriptures, the "Law" is portrayed as static, inflexible and subject to misinterpretation. Jesus is portayed as bringing the true "spirit" of the Law, its essense unmodified by wordy formulas and interpretations.

"Declare" here means verify or affirm, so the "Son", who is in union with the "Father", is witnessing to the "Father's" existence.