He believed literally that Jonah was swallowed by a great fish (Matthew 12:39-41)
He believed literally in the flood and the story of Noah (Matthew 24:37-38)
He believed literally in Adam and Eve (Matthew 19:4-6)
2007-12-11 17:08:48
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes look at the temptation of Jesus it can be found in Matthew 4:1-11, Mark 1:12-13, and Luke 4:1-13.
The 'Bible' Jesus read would have been something like the OT of today.
2007-12-11 16:59:17
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Jesus is the word he lived it and interpreted it literally figuratively and mainly through parables.Jesus is the only son of god conceived of the holy ghost born of the virgin Mary was crucified descended into hell and on the third day rose again in fulfillment of the scriptures .he is the first born from the dead ruler of all in the heavens and over all the kings of the earth he is seated at the right hand of father almighty and will come again in great majestic glory to judge the living and the dead in his kingdom there is no end .he is life , light , love and the only way to enter the heavens , He is the lion of the tribe of Judah worthy is he to open the scroll and break its seals,
2007-12-11 17:17:12
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answer #3
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answered by jewlsionzuriel777 3
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between the failings cults do is they take the failings that are literal interior the Bible and cause them to symbolic, and that they take the symbolic issues and cause them to literal. the nice and comfortable button is that the fashion of literature interior the Bible desires to be right pointed out whilst analyzing Scripture. Context ought to additionally be considered besides. a tactics too often human beings attempt to assign meaning to a undeniable passage with it being remoted from its context. the way you asked your question looks to mirror the favored concept of immediately---that no one fairly knows with any certainty what the Bible fairly says. That in simple terms isn't authentic. Jesus spoke a often happening language, and countless of his words have been recorded---in a often happening language. those words have meaning, and their meaning is clean. not all of Scripture is shrouded in secret, There are absolute truths contained in it, and we are able to be attentive to them unquestionably. interior the case of Matt 26:26 you have the Protestant theologians who've heavily exegeted the Scriptures and function concluded that Jesus' meaning to be symbolic, while Catholics have Rome telling them that the meaning is literal. an uncomplicated laboratory attempt on the sacraments after the alter boy rings the bell might allow you to be attentive to whose interpretation is here---might it not?
2016-11-02 23:49:28
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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He interpreted the Hebrew Scriptures - which were the only "Bible" He had - correctly, taking literal passages literally and figurative passages figuratively. And he gave His Church - the one He founded - the ability to do the same by the power of the Holy Spirit. Unfortunately manmade denominational churches don't possess that ability, as shown by the fact that there are manmade denominational churches - thousands of them - that can't agree with one another on a single passage of the Bible.
2007-12-11 16:58:42
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answer #5
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answered by PaulCyp 7
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Jesus never really "interpreted" the Bible. That is if you mean the Torah or Old Testament. They didn't have a New Testament when Jesus walked the earth. Anyway, He more/less fulfilled the Scriptures.
2007-12-11 16:57:24
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answer #6
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answered by stpolycarp77 6
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He didn't go one way or the other. And he WAS around while some of the bible was already written. he once quoted from scriptures in the old testament. but to answer the question, he interpreted the bible according to what God told him to do.
2007-12-11 16:58:55
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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He took them as literally as they were written. Whether it was a historical account or prophecy , Jesus took it literally, yet , in the latter vase (as in poetic genre) symbolic language was often used which denoted something literal.
Historical account:
(Mat 12:3-4) "But he said unto them, Have ye not read what David did, when he was an hungred, and they that were with him; {4} How he entered into the house of God, and did eat the showbread, which was not lawful for him to eat, neither for them which were with him, but only for the priests?"
(Mat 12:39-40) "But he answered and said unto them, An evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas: {40} For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth."
Prophecy:
(Mat 24:15-16) "When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand:) {16} Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains:"
(Mat 22:43-45) "He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying, {44} The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? {45} If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?"
2007-12-11 17:14:40
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answer #8
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answered by www.peacebyjesus 5
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The bible is based in Jesus teachings.
I believe Jesus did both when he taught, give figurative and literally examples:
Mark 9:47
And if thine eye offend thee, pluck it out: it is better for thee to enter into the kingdom of God with one eye, than having two eyes to be cast into hell fire:
(literally-warning people how serious sin is)
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Matthew 7:26
And every one that heareth these sayings of mine, and doeth them not, shall be likened unto a foolish man, which built his house upon the sand:
2007-12-11 17:13:11
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answer #9
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answered by Owl 4
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How did jesus get a copy of the bible?
2007-12-11 16:59:01
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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