Is the Doctrine of Immaculate Conception biblical?

Question

Or is it just a convenient 8th Century invention around the argument of original sin? Had Mary been born with original sin, so must have Jesus been born of original sin? Are not both doctrines equally suspect?

In the Constitution Ineffabilis Deus of 8 December, 1854, Pius IX pronounced and defined that the Blessed Virgin Mary "in the first instance of her conception, by a singular privilege and grace granted by God, in view of the merits of Jesus Christ, the Saviour of the human race, was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin."

Answer 1

No. Under the heading “Immaculate Conception,” The Catholic Encyclopedia admits: “No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture.”

“The Greek Fathers never formally or explicitly discussed the question of the Immaculate Conception.”—The Catholic Encyclopedia.

The Immaculate Conception contradicts the Scriptures. The claim that Mary was preserved from original sin from the first instant of her conception denies the universality of inherited sin. The apostle Paul states clearly: “Sin entered the world through one man, and through sin death, and thus death has spread through the whole human race because everyone has sinned.” (Ro. 5:12, JB) The Scriptures also state that redemption for “all mankind” came only through Christ’s death. (Heb. 2:9, JB) If the dogma of the Immaculate Conception of Mary were true, Mary would have been redeemed before Christ died, in fact, even years before he came to earth.

Thus, as measured by the Catholic Church’s own yardstick, this dogma is neither “Apostolic” nor Scriptural, and is therefore not an acceptable “tradition.” Should this not move sincere Catholics to examine in the light of the Bible other “articles of faith” they are required to believe?

Answer 2

You know the answer and you are correct. No biblical mention of immaculate conception of Mary, The only one immaculately conceived was Jesus. He had no sins because you are not born with sin. See what happens when you start messing with the bible, you have to make up one doctrine to support the other doctrine you made up. Keep praying that some of these post save some. God Bless

Answer 3

"Hail Mary FULL of Grace!" - Angel Gabriel to Mary - New Testament

Although the Bible does not directly say "immaculate conception", when Adam and Eve sinned, they fell away from grace. Being born in original sin, we are cut off from being in the fullness of God's grace. The only person in the Bible that is referred to as "FULL of grace" is Mary. Since she was "full of grace BEFORE the sacrament of baptism, she had to have been spared from original sin.

2nd - she also had to be immaculate to be united to Christ as she was. In order to provide a dwelling place for Christ, she had to be free from ANY sin - even original sin.

Answer 4

It definitely predates the 8th Century. It is not literally biblical, but it is extrapolated from biblical assertions. Believe it or not, there are some subjects the Bible does not directly address (and that's often the reason why such ideas develop). Whether the idea is all that important is another debate.

Answer 5

No, it's an intentional distortion by the early church. Jesus mother Mary is called "alma" in the earliest greek manuscripts which means young woman, not virgin.

As the firstborn of Joseph and Mary, lineal descendants of the Jewish royal line, Jesus was supposed to be born near passover, but was born in the spring instead, casting uncertainty over his role as heir of the throne.

A rather imaginative story was used to shore up his legitimacy. Gabriel was the one who confirmed that Mary's pregnancy was "of God", ie, legitimate, but neither he nor God screwed her.

Answer 6

Yes it is, Mary is saved beforehand by the saving death of Jesus on the cross.

Jesus is sinless and cannot sin since He is god.

for references to the bible
Genesis..I will put enmity between you and the woman...
Luke: hail full of grace.

Answer 7

Well, the Archangel Michale says, "Hail Mary full of Grace" (Luke) and this is where the sinless is derived from.

Answer 8

The immaculate conception is not a doctrine. The seed of sin lies with the fathers.

Answer 9

It's the immaculate misconception.

Answer 10

no, they are not equal.

There is no biblical justification for claiming Mary was without sin.

There is clear abundant biblical proof that Jesus was without sin.

god bless