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Does it translate exactly into fornication? Many sites on the internet say it doesn't, and therefore disregard fornication as a sin according to the bible.

2007-12-11 08:34:00 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

5 answers

Hebrews 13:4 and 1 Corinthians 6:9 establish that God disapproves of both adulteryi and fornication (Greek, por-nei’a). What does the latter include? The Greek term involves the use of the genital organs in either a natural or a perverted way with lewd intent. It includes all forms of illicit sexual relations outside of Scriptural marriage. So it includes oral sex, despite the fact that many teenagers around the world have been told or have come to the conclusion that oral sex is acceptable. True Christians do not guide their thinking and actions by the opinions of profitless talkers, and deceivers of the mind. (Titus 1:10) They hold to the higher standard of the Holy Scriptures. Rather than try to make excuses for oral sex, they understand that Scripturally it is fornication, por-nei’a, and they train their conscience accordingly. Acts 21:25; 1 Corinthians 6:18; Ephesians 5:3.

The Greek word for fornication is a broader term than that for adultery. It describes all forms of sexual relations outside lawful marriage, including homosexuality. (Jude 7) Jesus Christ also warned his followers not to tolerate any professed Christian teacher who minimizes the seriousness of fornication.—Revelation 1:1; 2:14, 20.

2007-12-11 08:39:12 · answer #1 · answered by Just So 6 · 4 1

the notion that sexual activity was necessarily wrong was unknown to classical societies. a prostitute sold her (or his) body for pleasure the way a soldier sold his body for war. neither profession was highly respected, but neither was despised either.

porneia was any sexual activity pursued for pleasure (ie its main aim was not procreation). christians probably disapproved of such activity, but non-christians didn't have that hang-up.

classical greek doesn't really have a word for 'fornication' (because attic greeks would not have thought it a sin). perhaps biblical greek does (in which case it would be porneia), perhaps not: it is difficult to say.

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papa's argument is certainly possible (though not conclusive). if sexual activity for pleasure alone is wrong, then oral, anal, manual, reading naughty books or looking at naughty pictures are all equally wicked. and so is using contraception (which of course is the roman catholic line).

2007-12-11 08:41:51 · answer #2 · answered by synopsis 7 · 0 0

It doesn't translate exactly, but there are many words in the biblical Greek that have no direct translation into English but rather only approximate translations.

For a good example of this, look at the THREE separate words that Greek has that are translated into English using the single concept of "love"

2007-12-11 08:40:40 · answer #3 · answered by Anne Hatzakis 6 · 1 0

I totally agree with papa.

2007-12-11 08:50:12 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

No. It's okay to fornicate.

2007-12-11 08:39:15 · answer #5 · answered by S K 7 · 0 2

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