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The genealogies of Jesus are different in Matthew (Chapter 1) and Luke (Chapter 3). In Matthew, Joseph is a direct descendant (from father to son) of David's son Solomon; in Luke he is descended through a different line, from David;s other son Nathan. The discrepancy can best be seen by moving backward through the genealogy, beginning from Joseph. Who was Joseph's father? Was it Jacob (as in Matthew) or Heli (as in Luke)? It goes on.

2007-12-11 07:43:18 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

One geneology was performed by the mothers side so that there is no dougbt of his blood line that demenstrates he is a son of the covenent and his uniquness of birth without the intervention of man but of heaven, the other geneology was by his adopted fathers side to demenstrate the timing of his arrival and validity of his royal affilliation.

In jewish law the son who is the first born is heir to his fathers possesion, so what happens if you were not born from the intervention of man but G-d and his son is his firstborn?

All that is of his father's house belongs to him and all meaning he was given all authority from the father as well.

2007-12-11 07:56:50 · answer #1 · answered by Free Cuba 3 · 2 1

Father K got it right!! (Great example of how a "seemingly obvious discrepancy" turns out to have a legitimate explanation)....

The first seventeen verses in the first chapter of Matthew give the genealogy of Jesus through Joseph, while Luke 3 presents the genealogy of Jesus through Mary. Through these genealogies, it is revealed that Jacob is the father of Joseph (Matt 1:16), while Heli is the father of Mary (Lk 3:23). The reason Mary is not mentioned in Luke’s genealogy is because Luke follows the Hebrew tradition of mentioning only the names of males. Hence, Mary is designated by her husband’s name. And so all indications are that, in Luke 3:23, the phrase “son of Heli” (literally “of Heli”) refers to Joseph as Heli’s son-in-law!

2007-12-11 07:50:52 · answer #2 · answered by whitehorse456 5 · 0 2

Both Matthew 1 and Luke 3 contain genealogies of Jesus. But there is one problem. They are different. Luke's Genealogy starts at Adam and goes to David. Matthew's Genealogy starts at Abraham and goes to David. When the genealogies arrive at David, they split with David's sons: Nathan (Mary's side) and Solomon (Joseph's side).

There is no discrepancy because one genealogy is for Mary and the other is for Joseph. It was customary to mention the genealogy through the father even though it was clearly known that it was through Mary.

2007-12-11 07:49:50 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 4 2

Jesus' kin tree is given in 2 places in Scripture: Matthew a million and Luke 3:23-38. Matthew strains the kin tree from Jesus to Abraham. Luke strains the kin tree from Jesus to Adam. although, there is nice reason to have faith that Matthew and Luke are in certainty tracing fullyyt distinctive genealogies. to illustrate, Matthew provides Joseph's father as Jacob (Matthew a million:sixteen), together as Luke provides Joseph's father as Heli (Luke 3:23). Matthew strains the line with the aid of David's son Solomon (Matthew a million:6), together as Luke strains the line with the aid of David's son Nathan (Luke 3:31). in certainty, between David and Jesus, the only names the genealogies have in elementary are Shealtiel and Zerubbabel (Matthew a million:12; Luke 3:27). some factor to those adjustments as evidence of blunders interior the Bible. although, the Jews have been meticulous checklist keepers, fantastically in regard to genealogies. that's astonishing that Matthew and Luke ought to construct 2 fullyyt contradictory genealogies of the comparable lineage. back, from David with the aid of Jesus, the genealogies are thoroughly distinctive. Even the relationship with Shealtiel and Zerubbabel in all probability communicate over with distinctive persons of the comparable names. Matthew provides Shealtiel's father as Jeconiah together as Luke provides Shealtiel's father as Neri. it would be known for a guy named Shealtiel to call his son Zerubbabel in mild of the well-known persons of those names (see the books of Ezra and Nehemiah).

2016-10-11 02:00:18 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

One is the genealogy of Mary... the other is that of Jesus' step father Joseph... in the eyes of the world Joseph was Jesus' father... so both geneologies are given..... the differences in names throughout the Bible are due to the differences in translation... espacialy into English there are difficulties in getting names translated properly due to lack of words and usage and misunderstanding of pronuciation of the original name. in actuality most of the names in the Bible are not strictly accurate.

2007-12-11 07:51:04 · answer #5 · answered by ? 5 · 3 0

We can always come up with highly convincing excuses for the revisions & changes for the book of Christians.

We must know that while translating someting the most intact of all are the proper nouns, are least likely to change!

The question however arises, why is it that books of Jews & Muslims are not needing revisions & corrections ever?

2007-12-11 08:30:52 · answer #6 · answered by Habib 6 · 0 0

A)one geneology seems to be of Mary, and another of Joseph. One of those differences is understood by many to reflect a Levirate marriage, where one did not have progeny, and the brother took the wife to raise up children for the deceased. The Savior is named YAHOSHUA (Same as "Joshua" who fought Jerico.) We are not to use Heathen Deities names, as "Hail Zeus" Ex 23:13

2007-12-11 07:49:58 · answer #7 · answered by hasse_john 7 · 0 1

It is called all Bibles written by hand for at least 1,500 years. Copy over copy was made. Mistakes got put in, without trying. When the caves where found full of them from 200 A.D. a lot of the mistakes were able to be fixed. But not all. That is why it is better to get a modern Bible. King James Bibles and others from before the 1950s are still full of them. And why a lot of new translations came out in the 1960s is because they had a lot more correct information to put in them.

2007-12-11 07:58:00 · answer #8 · answered by geessewereabove 7 · 0 3

Joseph has nothing to do with Jesus' genealogy because he is not the father. Jesus' genealogy comes from Mary.

2007-12-11 07:50:53 · answer #9 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 2 3

The difference in nearly all the names in Luke’s genealogy of Jesus as compared with Matthew’s is quickly resolved in the fact that Luke traced the line through David’s son Nathan, instead of Solomon as did Matthew. (Lu 3:31; Mt 1:6, 7) Luke evidently follows the ancestry of Mary, thus showing Jesus’ natural descent from David, while Matthew shows Jesus’ legal right to the throne of David by descent from Solomon through Joseph, who was legally Jesus’ father. Both Matthew and Luke signify that Joseph was not Jesus’ actual father but only his adoptive father, giving him legal right. Matthew departs from the style used throughout his genealogy when he comes to Jesus, saying: “Jacob became father to Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born, who is called Christ.” (Mt 1:16) Notice that he does not say ‘Joseph became father to Jesus’ but that he was “the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born.” Luke is even more pointed when, after showing earlier that Jesus was actually the Son of God by Mary (Lu 1:32-35), he says: “Jesus . . . being the son, as the opinion was, of Joseph, son of Heli.”—Lu 3:23.

Since Jesus was not the natural son of Joseph but was the Son of God, Luke’s genealogy of Jesus would prove that he was, by human birth, a son of David through his natural mother Mary. Regarding the genealogies of Jesus given by Matthew and by Luke, Frederic Louis Godet wrote: “This study of the text in detail leads us in this way to admit—1. That the genealogical register of Luke is that of Heli, the grandfather of Jesus; 2. That, this affiliation of Jesus by Heli being expressly opposed to His affiliation by Joseph, the document which he has preserved for us can be nothing else in his view than the genealogy of Jesus through Mary. But why does not Luke name Mary, and why pass immediately from Jesus to His grandfather? Ancient sentiment did not comport with the mention of the mother as the genealogical link. Among the Greeks a man was the son of his father, not of his mother; and among the Jews the adage was: ‘Genus matris non vocatur genus [“The descendant of the mother is not called (her) descendant”]’ (‘Baba bathra,’ 110, a).”—Commentary on Luke, 1981, p. 129.

Actually each genealogy (Matthew’s table and Luke’s) shows descent from David, through Solomon and through Nathan. (Mt 1:6; Lu 3:31) In examining the lists of Matthew and Luke, we find that after diverging at Solomon and Nathan, they come together again in two persons, Shealtiel and Zerubbabel. This can be explained in the following way: Shealtiel was the son of Jeconiah; perhaps by marriage to the daughter of Neri he became Neri’s son-in-law, thus being called the “son of Neri.” It is possible as well that Neri had no sons, so that Shealtiel was counted as his “son” for that reason also. Zerubbabel, who was likely the actual son of Pedaiah, was legally reckoned as the son of Shealtiel, as stated earlier.—Compare Mt 1:12; Lu 3:27; 1Ch 3:17-19.

2007-12-11 08:00:25 · answer #10 · answered by Everlasting Life 3 · 0 1

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