definition of original sin: In Christian theology, the condition of sin that marks all humans as a result of Adam's first act of disobedience. Adam transmitted his guilt to his descendants.
2007-12-11 05:56:57 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
some of you seem to be arguing that Jesus didn't inherit anything from his mother's genetic pool....
2007-12-11 06:12:29 · update #1
All men and women inherit original sin according to the doctrine, it doesn't say it is spread like herpes...
2007-12-11 06:14:43 · update #2
Virgin birth, immaculate conception (another suspect doctrine), doesn't explain away the doctrine of original sin...he was born of mortal woman who was not exempted by any special exception to the original sin doctrine.
2007-12-11 08:45:33 · update #3
Unless, of course, the theory that the descendants of Adam are guilty of Adam's trangression is false doctrine... and we are only guilty of our own sins.
2007-12-11 06:15:03 · answer #1 · answered by strplng warrior mom 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
He didn't inherit sin through the miracle of the virgin birth. Had He been born in the conventional manner, He wouldn't have qualified to be the ultimate Sacrifice on the Cross because he would've inherited original sin.
2007-12-11 08:35:13 · answer #2 · answered by bigvol662004 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
God cursed Adams seed, but only cursed Eve with pain of childbirth. The womb of women remained pure. Only the seed of men transmitted the curse. Kinda like a STD. By pure seed was introduced into Mary she was able to bear a sinless child.
2007-12-11 06:06:01 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Because He had the blood of His father which is sinless and pure it is the father that gives the blood not the mother .The stain of original sin would be in the blood of any one born of a human mother and father even Mary. Nowhere in the bible does it claim anyone is sinless except Christ .Where His brother sinless because they also came from Mary , no because they had father and mother who have stained blood .
2007-12-11 06:21:13 · answer #4 · answered by the only 1 hobo 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Mary was a virgin when the Holy Spirit caused Jesus to form in her womb... most people are conceived by the "seed" of a man, but not Jesus - he was born of the "seed" of a woman only - see Genesis 3:15:
"And I will put enmity
Between you and the woman,
And between your seed and her seed;
He shall bruise you on the head,
And you shall bruise him on the heel."
Jesus was the "seed" of the woman who crushed the head of the serpent (Satan)
2007-12-11 06:02:40 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Mary is the Immaculate Conception and was born without sin.
Huh? Look at what you people don't know. How many Catholics here?
2007-12-11 06:03:04 · answer #6 · answered by gone 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Because his "father' was not human.
2007-12-11 06:02:05 · answer #7 · answered by Averell A 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋