Check out the answers to my last 3 questions and you'll see how Christians seem to disregard the Old Testament. Since when are they allowed to pick and choose?
2007-12-10 09:41:20 · 18 answers · asked by bsxfn 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Then let us go with
1st Corinthians 6:9-10
Does this one work for ya?
2007-12-10 09:44:39 · answer #1 · answered by kenny p 7 · 5⤊ 2⤋
actually there are verses in the new testament condemning homosexuality some are in matthew and also who says we disregard the old testament christian common law is in the old testament the 10 commandments christians are to obey those no matter what
2007-12-10 09:45:58 · answer #2 · answered by Tavares 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
It's called "cherry picking."
If homosexuality is such a big deal, why was Jesus completely silent on the subject?
I am surprised that so many people respond to a question dealing with homosexuality yet these people have absolutely no experience with the subject. They speak from a position of complete ignorance. It's like trying to describe chocolate without ever having tasted it.
Ask a homosexual if it was his/her choice. Almost every one will tell you no. Why would someone choose to be persecuted, face a life of discrimination, risk loosing their apartment, risk losing their job, risk the public scorn of others?
Religion has no monopoly over marriage. Marriage has always been about inheritance and property rights. Read Same-Sex Unions in Premodern Europe by John Boswell for a very in-depth examination of the sacred text from which the Bible was derived.
Early Christian Gnostics had no problem with same-sex unions I believe it was the Catholic Church in the 13th Century that broke away from the Gnostics and added all these rules. Keep in mind that movable type wasn't invented until the 16th Century so Bibles were not accessible to the masses until many many many years after Christ's death. Even the Gospels were not written until 300 years after the death of the disciples.
2007-12-10 09:45:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 9⤊ 3⤋
Because the bible contradicts itself too much.
In the Old Testament it says the reasons to kill someone
e.g. if they're homosexual, drunk, dishonor parents, etc.
But the commandments say Thou shall not kill
So tell this to someone who believes in the bible and they'll tell you "oh the old testament doesn't apply anymore thats why we have the new testament."
o.O
It makes no sense.
I chose not to believe in it.
2007-12-10 12:33:47 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Exactly!! That bothers me to know end. Though the rules have changed that doesn't mean the old testament can be disregarded!
2007-12-10 09:47:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
And Romans being about sacred Pagan temple sex to unite with the temple deity...not a feature of homosexual relationships as far as I'm aware.
2007-12-10 09:52:31 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They even cite verses produced by divination to condemn the practice of divination.
2007-12-10 09:52:07 · answer #7 · answered by Tommy 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is easy to condemn homosexuality if you don't happen to be a homosexual. But prawns are tasty, no one wants their beard looking unruly and look at this stylish polyester cotton blend shirt!
2007-12-10 09:52:03 · answer #8 · answered by Monstera Deliciosa 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because even though they are convinced that it is an abhorent thing, Jesus apparently never got around to saying anything bad about homosexuality. So they have to search back a couple thousand years further to find something to justify their bigotry.
2007-12-10 09:46:42 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 1⤋
well then look at 1st. Corinthians 6:9
2007-12-10 10:53:38 · answer #10 · answered by how2live 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋