That's the difference between the old and new testaments...and not to mention the amount of times the bible has been translated (lost in translation mean anything to you?)
2007-12-10 05:14:30
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answer #1
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answered by JD 6
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The inaccuracy of the concept that the xtian god is the critical author of the scripture and that it could incorporate no blunders, self contradiction, or something opposite to scientific or historic evidence is unquestionably verified. To be the critical author the story must be unique--yet--seek advice from the Noah tale and the Sumerian epic of gilgamesh. The thoughts are almost comparable however the sumerian epic predates the hebrew tale via a pair of thousand years. The sumerian ark tale is the unique--the hebrew author consequently can't be construed by way of fact the unique author. One might suspect on some thing this signficant the unique tale might have the final deity, yet if the hebrew author ws concept then then the god(s) interior the orignal tale have been incorrect. extremely a gross misjudgment to no longer referr to the unique tale as a mistelling interior the hebrew tale is it no longer? One applies an identical logic to the babylonian creation tale (made made via the gods from the clay of the earth) which predates the biblical tale as quickly as lower back. Or the sumerian fantasy of king sargon (toddler placed in reed basket sealed with pitch and placed in river to be got here across and finally raised as royalty) which predates the moses tale as quickly as lower back. the full bible is stuffed with divine Authorship that suspiciously echos lots in the previous myths. by way of fact the persons who might grow to be the jews lived interior the section between the egyptians and babylonians and can have been around the campfires of investors between those 2 great empires--and heard those myths--one has to rationally evaluate the prospect that the hebrews purely wove those historical myths into their own rising religious myths--and that no divine authorship replaced into invovled--purely the writings of a human beings bobbing up their own relgion.
2016-11-15 04:05:28
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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No where in the passage at Genesis chapter 32 did Jacob actually see God, it was hust an expression because he had gained a blessing from an angel who he had grappled with for a whole night.
In Genesis chapter 18 Abaham met three men who were angels, God spoke through them in the proceeding verses to tell Sarah she would conceive a child
2007-12-10 06:02:25
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answer #3
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answered by Kurt 6
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Sometimes verses from the Bible can be taken out of context. It depends on what the story is about and how those verses you have picked out relate to the story. No human can see God because God is not a person, no one knows what he looks like. However, we CAN see evidence of him. Look around you...where are you at? If you are outside, you can see evidence that he created everything you see perhaps water, or flowers, or whatever it may be. God also ordained (somewhat) certain people of the Bible, specifically the Patriarchs (Isaac, Jacob, Abraham etc...) who were the founding fathers of the world pretty much. These men were very holy and God saw it fit that he appear to them or that he send his angels to him. For example, when Abraham was about to kill his son Isaac and God sent an angel to stop him. Because Abraham was obedient to the Lord, he was actually going to kill his son; God was testing him and found him faithful, he passed. However, the most important thing to remember when asking these questions is to look at the context of the story. Hope this helps somewhat and sorry if I rambled a bit.
2007-12-10 05:20:16
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answer #4
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answered by itsallboutme451 1
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Taelec has it true.... When you are in the presence of the Lord, His presence is through the Holy Spirit....within you and around you! Remember, God walked the earth with man UNTIL they desired a human king like everyone else had because they wanted someone they could SEE.
Genesis 18
1And the LORD appeared unto him in the plains of Mamre: and he sat in the tent door in the heat of the day;
If you look at where "he" sat in the doorway, there was no other person there...for "he" ran to the 3 men whom he "lift up his eyes and looked":
[2And he lift up his eyes and looked, and, lo, three men stood by him: and when he saw them, he ran to meet them from the tent door, and bowed himself toward the ground,]
[Genesis 32:24
And Jacob was left alone; and there wrestled a man with him until the breaking of the day]
"Wrestling with God" over something we all can relate with... however, in this case, it definitely states he wrestled with a "man"....and that where he was "touched" upon the sinew of the thigh that shrunk thereafter because the Lord touched it, could mean a number of things....but, it has been long believed that he wrestled an angel...same as with the following Scriptures: (Genesis 32:31; Judges 8:8,9,17; 1 Kings 12:25)
If you look at Genesis 32:1 it states that 3 angels appeared to him with a message and later he looked up and saw those same 3....then, in Genesis 32:28 it says the "man" said: AS A PRINCE thou hast power with God AND with men....and...prevailed with both.
[28And he said, Thy name shall be called no more Jacob, but Israel: for as a prince hast thou power with God and with men, and hast prevailed.]
The Book IS "Holy"...
Peace be with you :)
2007-12-10 05:58:43
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answer #5
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answered by ForeverSet 5
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The Bible is right.There really are no contradictions in accurate translations.God is a Spirit and immaterial and everywhere present.He is in all His completeness present where you are and also in the entire universe.
In the case of Abraham the Lord appeared to him as an angel.This also was the case with Jacob.Jesus was right when He said that no one can see God.God is incomprehensible and sometimes the Bible uses human terminology.Like the --hand of God--the ear of God.
2007-12-10 05:37:11
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answer #6
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answered by Don Verto 7
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Well....Each book was written by man for man, and most likely inspired by God or something like that. You cannot compare a verse from the Old Testament to the New or even really a verse from one Gospel to the next in either testament. They were written at different times and while there may be some chronological order, they were certainly not written that way or meant to be taken that way.
The OT is supposed to be a reference and guide book for the Jewish people, and yes, there are references in the NT regarding verses, etc..but that was because the first Christians believed themselves to be Jewish.
At least for the New Testament gospels - they were written singularly for a certain group of people who followed Jesus, through one or two apostle' teachings. Some groups maybe followed Matthew, or maybe Luke. Others may have had one or two letters from Paul. It wasn't until about 300 years later that they were compiled together and we have it as we know it today.
I think that the Bible can be said to be Holy in that it is the main source for Judaic and Christian belief about (their) God. For those who do not believe, of course it can't be found as holy, as it means nothing theologically to them. A person could find Harry Potter holy if it meant something spiritually to them, they found some greater meaning about life in it.
2007-12-10 05:20:53
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answer #7
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answered by SisterSue 6
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John 1 : 18,No man hath seen God at any time: the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him."
"No man hath seen God at any time: " is a Hebraism, meaning you have to be dead to see HIS face. HE is in a different dimension.
2007-12-10 05:22:53
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answer #8
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answered by Theophilus 5
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Your "contradiction" is easily answered.
1) Jesus IS God.
2) He is the visible incarnation of the invisible God.
3) God exists in three forms: the Father (invisible), the Son (visible) and the Spirit (invisible).
3) Anyone who saw God didn't see the Father or the Spirit, they saw God the Son.
4) When Jesus stated that no one has seen God, He was speaking about the Father and the Spirit. He was not speaking about Himself.
2007-12-10 05:26:14
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answer #9
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answered by Suzanne: YPA 7
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Jesus was referring to God the Father. However Jesus is himself God, incarnated in human form to provide salvation. One of the angels who appeared to Abraham prior to the purge of Sodom and Gomorrah was taken by him as God in human form. Also there are 'angel of the Lord' encounters (Jacob and Joshua) where the 'angel of the Lord' was not just an angel but the Lord.
It is holy I suppose because of the inspiration of God. There are promises and revelation that if followed lead to a person's salvation. Obviously being delivered from judgement is a good thing, and there are warnings not to follow 'revelations' that contradict God's true revelation - because the true God is not likely to fulfil promises He didn't make (angels of Satan can actually pretend to be angels of God, pick on a person who is likely to be corrupted and give them a 'revelation' that looks authentic). That God is holy you can see from passages like Isaiah 6.
2007-12-10 05:39:02
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answer #10
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answered by Cader and Glyder scrambler 7
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Bible ready....
John 1:18: What does John mean when he says this? He is affirming the fact that no human being has seen the essential being of God.Some men in the Old Testamenet, as you mention, experienced "theophanies" (special appearances of God in various forms), but no one saw the essential being of God.Only the son Jesus, who is himself God, can communicate his glory to us.The son, Jesus, is Gods explainer, so to speak. He came to earth and lived among people to explain God to us with his words and by his person. No one can no God apart from knowing Jesus, Gods explainer.
Good try, but try again.
.....Also, I know you think your clever picking out different scripture in various places of the Bible. But you have to remember, the context of which things were written, times and dates of things written, who the letters were addressed to etc etc. Picking out various words or lines, you could find fault with the dictionary for petes sake.
But if you want to continue with your questions, keep em comming, but you'll never "hear" what you want to hear, even if we are correct.
2007-12-10 05:34:40
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answer #11
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answered by kellythetrainer 3
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