Why do most present church doctrines not teach this ?
This is very significant spiritually and Theologically.
Thank you for all sincere answers.
Peace and progress into all Truth !
2007-12-10 03:19:14 · 9 answers · asked by ? 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Because He is/was the Son of God. Jesus IS God.
2007-12-10 03:22:37 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
I don't really understand what you mean by this when you ask if most present churches not teach this? In Christian churches, they do. When you say it is very significant spiritually and theologically, I don't know what you mean, either.
The correct translation of this verse means that the Pharisees were sitting around one day with Christ, and Christ asked them what they thought of Christ The Pharisees did not know they were talking with Christ at the moment. That's obvious.
The Pharisees answered they thought Christ was the son of David. The Pharisees did not believe Christ was the Son of God.
The phrase, "Sit Thou on My Right Hand, TIll I Make Thine Enemies Thy Footstool", is also used in Psalm 110:1. Where it refers to the Coming of the King, Jesus. It's also used in Luke 20:42-43. Here, Jesus asks the same question of them. Scribes were considered hypocrites and hated Jesus. They could never believe that He was the Son of God. Scribes played an important role in the death of Jesus and in the persecution of the early church. Nicodemus was a Scribe.
This term, "Sit Thou On My RIght Hand And Make Thy Enemy A Footstool", refers to a Davidic Messianic Prophecy.
I hope this helps answer whateve it is you are asking.
2007-12-10 11:56:24 · answer #2 · answered by Big Bear 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mat 22:41-46 (MKJV) says, "While the Pharisees were gathered, Jesus asked them, (42) saying, What do you think of Christ? Whose son is he? They say to Him, David's. (43) He said to them, How then does David by the Spirit call him Lord, saying, (44) "the LORD said to my Lord, Sit on My right until I make Your enemies Your footstool for Your feet?" (45) If David then calls Him Lord, how is He his son? (46) And no one was able to answer Him a word, nor did anyone dare from that day to question Him any more."
He wasn't denying that he was the son of David. He was pointing out that even David called one of his descendents "LORD".
Is this an attempt at grasping for straws by denying what the Scriptures actually say? Or is this my own misunderstanding of your question?
2007-12-10 11:25:00 · answer #3 · answered by no1home2day 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think that the reason why they don't is because they have become 'modern living' preachers. I have problems with this. Instead of preaching message to increase a believer's trust in God, they are teaching about living a 'pure and clean' Christian life, and often preach morality as what is important. While it is good to live without harming anyone through being an example, the messages to increase faith are set aside.
I have noticed that the resurrection messages are closest to what you are referring to, as if Easter was a time to increase faith - linking God's ability to keep His word with the resurrection, but only during that Easter time.
I used to go to a church where it was taught commonly that God could be trusted. No matter which part of the Bible we were in, God kept His word. That's teaching faith. We are the people of promise, even going back as far as Abraham, as we are the children of promise God spoke of when He said, " The nations of the Earth will be blessed through you."
So I see the reason why messages like what would come out of Matthew 22 set aside, so that families will hear messages of 'doing good' rather than trusting God.
2007-12-10 11:33:45 · answer #4 · answered by Christian Sinner 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He didn't deny that he was "son of David". He did a question that he was sure that they don't know the answer. Jesus is the King of God for the Messianic Kingdom. Philippians 2:9 says "For this very reason also God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every [other] name". Even if he was son of David the position that God give to him is greater than David's, so Jesus is Lord for David.
2007-12-10 11:27:42 · answer #5 · answered by Cretan1986 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think the point of this passage is for Jesus to deny he was a Son of David. Because he was a son of David.
Matthew 1:1 (ESV)
The book of the genealogy of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham.
I think Jesus' point in the Matthew 22 passage was to show the Pharisees that Jesus was greater than David. Remember, the Pharisees saw David as the great king...there was no king greater. Jesus uses this Psalm to show that he was indeed a son of David and also greater than David. David calls him Lord...so Jesus is indeed greater than David.
That's what I think the thrust of the passage means.
2007-12-10 11:24:44 · answer #6 · answered by tub_a_jam 1 · 3⤊ 0⤋
This is taught. Jesus was saying I am more than of the lineage of David as they answered........I Am his Lord. Not just a ancestor. I am his God.
The Pharisees did not believe that Christ was the Messiah only a mere son of david.
2007-12-10 11:30:04 · answer #7 · answered by ajw 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because he wasn't. He was the son of David in that he was one of his descendants. But he was more than that as he expressed in that verse. He was his Lord because he existed in heaven before he ever came to earth and because he would be the means by which everyone, including David, would achieve everlasting life.
2007-12-10 11:24:11 · answer #8 · answered by Q&A Queen 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
He also says in the Bible that "Jesus is everything to everyone so that one might be saved."
2007-12-13 14:13:04 · answer #9 · answered by Popcorngirl20 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋