Healing is a miracle.
God is a spirit therefore, he had to take on the image of his son to reach mankind.
John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
Jesus represents to mankind the fullness of who God is.
Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:
John 14:10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
11 Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake.
Read all of John actually.
2007-12-09 12:22:49
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answer #1
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answered by stvn967 5
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When the John the Baptist baptizes Jesus, the Heavens open up and a voice from above says" This is My Son, with whom I 'm well pleased:"
Jesus healed the blind and the crippled, lepers, and many others - this was his healings.
His miracles - feeding five thousand people from a couple of loaves of bread, walking on water, controlling the elements, and many others.
As much as i would like to spell everything out for you, i don't have all that time. I suggest that you get a Bible (New King James Version) and start reading it from the Book of Matthew. Jesus' words are usually in red. I hava a Blackaby Study Bible - it is awesome. It has many references and footnotes. God Bless and Praise Jesus.
2007-12-09 12:19:24
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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To your first question: There is no difference between Jesus' healings and his miracles. His healings WERE miracles.
Here are a couple of scriptures that might fit what you're looking for.
John 10:35 - "do YOU say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son?" ... I think think this is pretty self-explanatory.
John 4:25,26 - "The woman said to him: “I know that Mes·si′ah is coming, who is called Christ. Whenever that one arrives, he will declare all things to us openly.” Jesus said to her: “I who am speaking to you am he.” ... So while Jesus did not say here "I am God's SON", he did say he was the Messiah who scripture prophecied would BE God's son. By acknowledging he was one, he was acknowledging he was the other.
2007-12-09 12:21:05
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answer #3
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answered by Q&A Queen 7
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That's a very valid question you got here!
Jesus is the illegitimate child of Saint Joseph. The Virgin Mary was never married to God the Holy Ghost, either! She was a single mother when she was birthing God the Son Jesus Christ! This is the only reason why the Early Church Fathers came up with the brilliant idea to keep Mary a virgin for ever otherwise the morality of the whole affair would be very, very questionable and most likely unacceptable, but the perpetual virginity idea made Christianity to fly!!! In those days it was very easy to edit anything written!!!
On top of all that God the Son Jesus Christ turned out to be a vicious killer of innocent children just like his Father in Heaven!
Revelation 2:23 (NIV) (Jesus says) I WILL STRIKE HER CHILDREN DEAD. Then ALL THE CHURCHES WILL KNOW that I am he who searches hearts and minds, and I will repay each of you according to your deeds.
Luke 19:27 (Jesus was very excited telling this story!) But those enemies of mine who did not want me to be king over them–bring them here and kill them in front of me.
Only a bloody tyrant would talk like that! Christians demand a much higher standard of morality from their clergy, and the preachers, and the politicians than from Jesus Christ! That's hypocrisy! Why is it that in Christianity everything is KILLING… KILLING… KILLING… and more KILLING…??? Isn’t Christianity a Barbaric religion just like Islam? All the sugar coating in Christianity is so repulsive! Can any Christian understand? Please, reporting me is not the best answer it only proves how puny is the Bible God!
2007-12-09 12:18:34
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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There are many references in the New Testement about Jesus being the Son of God.
2007-12-09 12:42:27
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answer #5
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answered by trey98607 7
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God DOESN"T bare childern! (It's sounds worng to even write about it, let alone believe it!) Jesus (Isa) (PBUH) was a mortal man and God's messenger. It's not really that hard to understand.
2007-12-09 12:23:11
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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jesus doesnt and never existed so there is no answer
2007-12-09 12:16:46
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answer #7
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answered by Raza 2
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Matthew 11:27. "All things have been handed over to Me by my Father: and no one knows the Son, except the Father; nor does anyone know the Father, except the Son, and anyone to whom the Son wills to reveal Him." In this verse, Jesus claimed to be the Son of God in an "exclusive and absolute sense," having a unique and personal relationship with the Father. It is helpful here to make a momentary digression into the Jewish conception of the father/son relationship. Being a son to a father required the following:
Obedience: The son was expected to be totally obedient to the father in all matters. (See Prov. 4:4.) In identifying Himself as God's Son, Jesus indicated that He was obliged to be in perfect obedience to the divine will. But what human could accomplish this? It would be the claim of one who was either a massive egotist, insane -- or truly divine.
Learning: A son was expected to learn the father's trade, his skills, and his experience. Jesus is therefore saying that he has taken up God's work and learned what He knows directly from God. Finally:
Agency: A son was expected to act as the father's agent when called upon, and would be considered to have the father's legal authority in such situations. Jesus was therefore saying that He was appointed as God's direct agent.
This all implies divinity, inasmuch as the OT describes God as one who will not share His glory with another.
Matthew 12:28; parallel in Luke 11:20. "If I cast out demons by the finger of God, then the kingdom of God has come upon you." These words "show that Jesus thought that the presence of the kingdom was attested to by his exorcisms." It demonstrates that Jesus considered His presence to be a harbinger of God's kingdom, indicating a very special relationship with God - to the point of divinity.
Matthew 23:34. "Wherefore, behold, I send unto you prophets, and wise men, and scribes..." In Jewish belief, it is God that is responsible for sending prophets. In saying that He will send prophets, Jesus is equating Himself with God - once again, assuming a role reserved for God alone.
Matthew 24:5; parallels in Mark 5:23, Luke 21:8. "For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ: and shall deceive many." This statement would be meaningless if Jesus did not perceive Himself as Christ. The title "Christ," of course, is a Greek equivalent to the Jewish term "Messiah," both meaning "anointed." Therefore, this can be considered to be a claim to divinity if it is shown that Christ/Messiah is a divine title.
Mark 9:42. "And if anyone causes one of these little ones who believe in me to sin... Jesus is hereby endorsing Himself as an appropriate object of religious faith! This is thus a rather important clue as to deity (cf. Jer 17.5 "This is what the LORD says: 'Cursed is the one who trusts in man.' ").
Matthew 28:18; similar quotes in Luke 24:25, 46. In this post-resurrection address, Jesus says that all power in heaven and on earth has been given to Him - in short, power that only God has.
Luke 12:8-9. "I say to you, everyone who confesses Me before men, the Son of Man shall confess him also before the angels of God: but he who denies me before men shall be denied before the angels of God." Here Jesus indicates that what men say about Him will be the focal point of their judgment. Certainly this directly implies some divine influence!
Matthew 26:64; parallel in Mark 14:61-4. The high priest asks Jesus directly if He is the Christ, and Jesus answers in the affirmative.
Mark 12.1-11 This is the parable of the Tenants and the wicked husbandmen. In this passage Jesus "identifies himself...with the beloved Son, the final envoy of God in a succession of divine messengers, the prophets."
Jesus here differentiates Himself from the religious leadership of Israel (i.e. "the wicked tenants"), with a claim to a UNIQUE Sonship-Heirship. So "He had one left to send, a son, whom he loved. He sent him last of all, saying, 'They will respect my son.' "But the tenants said to one another, 'This is the heir. Come, let's kill him, and the inheritance will be ours.' So they took him and killed him, and threw him out of the vineyard...He interprets this messianically in v.10-11, as does His enemies around Him (v.12). He is the UNIQUE Son and Heir of God--a rather high claim!
Matthew 16:16-7. Peter identifies Jesus as the Christ. Jesus does not rebuke Peter, but proclaims him blessed for having had the information revealed to him.
Mark 14.27 Here, Jesus applies a messianic passage, Zechariah 13:7, to himself.
Mt 25:17-46 This is the "sheep and the goats" judgment passage, where Jesus says of Himself, as Son of Man, that he "comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, he will sit on his throne in heavenly glory. All the nations will be gathered before him, and he will separate the people one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats." These he will then judge and send on to their respective eternal destinies. Jesus claimed to be able to determine people's eternal destiny!
Lk 19.43ff "The days will come upon you when your enemies will build an embankment against you and encircle you and hem you in on every side. They will dash you to the ground, you and the children within your walls. They will not leave one stone on another, because you did not recognize the time of God's coming to you." Notice: They did not recognize "GOD'S" coming to them. YHWH was supposed to come to His temple (OT prophecy), which of course happens in the NEXT section of Luke. Jesus is making a clear claim to deity here.
Lk 21:14-15. "But make up your mind not to worry beforehand how you will defend yourselves. For I will give you words and wisdom that none of your adversaries will be able to resist or contradict." Notice: in this version of the end-time persecution prophecy, Jesus says that HE will give them the words to say, but in Mt 10 it has 'Spirit of your Father' and in Mr 13 it was 'the Holy Spirit'. This is a rather clear and close association (besides a statement of supernatural power to be able to do that, and omnipresence to BE there!)
Lk 22:29f. "And I confer on you a kingdom, just as my Father conferred one on me." Here Jesus claims the authority to "confer a kingdom" in the same way as His Father -- indicating equality of action and authority.
Matthew 9:2; parallels in Mark 2:5, Luke 5:20 and 7:48. Jesus tells people that "their sins are forgiven."
Forgiveness requires the RIGHT to forgive; therefore, Jesus' forgiving the sins of others that He had no personal connection with indicates that He believed that He was the only One who was offended by all sins and therefore had the right to forgive them: God, the author of all moral law. Moreover, this is particularly a noteworthy claim in the context of Judaism - "The faithful Jew...acknowledged that only God can forgive the sinner." So in effect, Jesus was assuming the place and role of the entire Temple sacrificial system authorized by God and claiming to be God's broker for forgiveness.
2007-12-09 12:27:15
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answer #8
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answered by D2T 3
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