Sharia law is interpreted differently in different countries.
2007-12-09 07:47:32 · 7 answers · asked by ronford9 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Brother
Sharia Laws are explained in Holy Bok Quran and through the sayings of our Holy Prophet Muhammad peace be on him and they are recorded and unchangeable.
Islam dictates belief in Oneness of God Almighty and all the holy Prophets and their holy scriptures, including the Last Holy Prophet Muhammad peace be on all of them. Then basics beliefs of day of judgement, angels, fate, afterlife, heaven and hell, rights of parents, wife, family, relatives, neighbour, human beings and all living beings and five pillars of Islam i.e, prayers, fasting, wealth tax and pilgrimage of holy sanctuaries. There is no disagreement on these matters by any sect of Muslims.
In the absence of Islamic Rule and a Religious Ruler /Judge Khaleefa it is not possible to stop an ignorant person to talk something from his own mind against the Islamic law and say it is Sharia.
Also right now there is no Single religious authority for Muslims like what Pope is for Christians.
There are many Islamic religious Schools in many countries, while they do not differ in Basics and the matters already in effect, they might differ in giving Fatwas on matters arriving out of Modern civilization and related problems. This should not be interpreted as Different Sharia for different countries.
May God Almighty Guide All of Us Towards Straight Path Amen.
2007-12-09 09:08:38 · answer #1 · answered by mohammad a 5 · 2⤊ 6⤋
Though I am not a scholar this is my take on the subject. If true Sharia law was practiced, it would all be provable straight from the Quran. The different interpretations of law means none are strictly following Sharia.
2007-12-09 08:19:48 · answer #2 · answered by hkabteni1980 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Most of it is in there, although you have to also look at the Hadeeth to get in-depth explanations for some of the laws. Only Saheeh (Authentic word for word) or Hasan (Authentic with varied wording) hadeeths are used to legislate the Sharia.
2007-12-09 08:59:33 · answer #3 · answered by yo189 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋
If it's anything like the bible you can prove anything you want by twisting a word there or a meaning there.
Usually described as improved translation
2007-12-09 08:09:53 · answer #4 · answered by John W 3 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Magicofdawn has given a very good answer. I see that some Muslims are still denying what Sharia laws are &/or ignorant of them. TO: BAYBARS, I suggest you do some reading up on what punishment Mohammad commanded to be given to a man & woman who had "illegal sexual intercourse." In the hadith below, keep in mind that the woman could have been raped: Sahih Bukhari, Book 49, No. 860 Narrated by Abu Huraria and Zaid bin Khalid al-Juhani: A bedouin came and said. "O Allah's Apostle! Judge between us according to Allah's Laws." His opponent got up and said, "He is right. Judge between us according to Allah's Laws." The bedouin said, "My son was a laborer working for this man, and he committed illegal sexual intercourse with his wife. The people told me that my son should be stoned to death; so, in lieu of that I paid a ransom of one-hundred sheep and a slave girl to save my son. Then I asked the learned scholars who said, "Your son has to be lashed one hundred lashes, and has to be exiled for one year." The Prophet said, "No doubt I will judge between you according to Allah's Laws. The slave-girl and sheep are to go back to you and your son will get a hundred lashes and one year exile." He then addressed somebody, "O Unais! go to the wife of this (man) and stone her to death." So Unais went and stoned her to death. One can't help but to drop their jaws when he/she reads this kind of "justice." Mohammad did say that Allah's Laws never changed. Wow, the man could have raped the woman for all we know. Mohammad didn't even even talk to the man nor the woman who had "illegal sexual intercourse", yet he commanded the woman who could have been the victim of rape to be STONED TO DEATH & the man to receive 100 lashes & exiled for one year. Read carefully what the bedouin said. It indicates that the woman surely could have been raped. Some scholars believe she was. And look @ the "punishment" she received: stoned to death, because of Mohammad's command. Sharia law would not exist if it were not for the quran. TO: NOOR, It never ceases to amaze me that you do not agree with what your religion is all about. There is nothing noble about Islam, Islamic Law protects no society (exception: Muslim men who rape Muslim girls & women of all ages that we see & read about each week in many numbers). I would really like for you to gain knowledge about Islam & not copy & paste from someone who puts Islam upon a pedestal & puts Christianity down. You do this repeatedly. Find out for yourself from totally unbiased sources. In other words, learn about Islam by reading all the hadiths in accordance with the quran.
2016-04-08 04:00:05 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
that is a good question and I would be very interested to knwo it shows it is mnostly man made if it differs so much.
2007-12-09 07:50:59 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
There are bases that do not changes. And there are differential things that can be changed due to its limit.
2007-12-09 08:13:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋