It's a function of time. All languages are in a constant state of change. Anytime that two linguistic communities are separated, they will continue to change, but in different ways. If the separation is long enough, two different languages will result. Two linguistic communities were established in 1607 separated by the Atlantic Ocean. For four hundred those two languages have been changing in different ways. British English still pronounced their post-syllabic r's in 1600, but now they've lost them. Other changes have affected American English. It's just a simple function of separation and time.
2007-12-09 07:15:35
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answer #1
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answered by Taivo 7
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Because the distance between USA and britian are so far away.
Plus USA has some different accents (southern, northeastern new york and new england accents, hawaiian accent)
Canada and especially quebec pronounces some words differently
South africa has its own diffent accent especially some afrikaners
australia & new zeeland kinda sounds like a cross between american and british english
plus there is scottish and irish accents
To be honest all European languages sound differently in the americas as opposed to europe.
spanish is spain (they lisp lol Ex. cinco is pronounced thinco) and latin america (particularly Argentinean spanish is a little different)
Portuguese from portugal and africa is VERY different than Portuguese from brazil.
Then theres quebec, north africa, and france for french
Also I assume dutch is slightly different for aruba than the netherlands not to mention that afrikaans evolved into a separate language.
English, french, spanish, portuguese, dutch all have different "dialects" in different parts of the world especially in europe, africa, north & south america.
2007-12-09 08:41:22
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answer #2
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answered by orlundo 2
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well it's the same thing with people who live in different areas. why do the american south have different accents than the north? why do the irish speak differently from the english? it's a matter of influence of people around you, who taught you to speak, etc. the americans used english derived from the british but coming over to america where there are foreign peoples (indians, african slaves) would change speech also.
2007-12-09 06:46:27
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answer #3
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answered by heypleasesayyes 2
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There is a difference in pronunciation as in the slang. American slang has a tendency to sound harsher. Bugger off, one of the English strongest basically equates to Fu_ k off. there is also a difference in meanings od some words. You example of the word pants, refers to underwear while trousers are the blue jeans or dress pants worn with a jacket. Something I have learned is that some young people from India seen to very snobbish about English and will use the excuse of British English being correct almost as a crutch or block to remain different and to put down Americans. It appears a arrogance to many, but I believe it is a defense from being teased. No language is stupid, if it is used in a correct manner and if someone to whom the language is not their primary one is willing to learn the language of the country where they are. Personally I would not consider someone a friend that spoke to me the way he has spoken to you,
2016-05-22 08:25:43
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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After the American Revolutionary War with England, Americans did not have much contact with England. Therefore, Americans still speak a variation of English from the era of George III. That is why you may hear some say "Have you et yet?" instead of "Have you eaten yet?" They are not being backward or colloquial. That is how George III spoke and, as you know, the king was the person who decided on how the country should speak.
After that time, America was more separated from England and the language began to evolve with the influence of immigration as well as the freed slaves whose pigeons and creoles came from their native African languages.
As American became more involves oversees with not just one but two Great Wars, it changed the language further. I guess you could say that American English is a melting pot of other languages.
2007-12-09 06:58:47
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Being born and raised in Ruislip, Middlesex I can answer this! Ther diffrenece are hings like like tin foil/alumiunium, boot/trunk and flat/apartment etc.. but in modern cities, most will understand you, and there isn't really confusion, our daughter spent college there, and after the first week settled in nicely. We used to own a British store on St. Pete Beach (www.shopscotties.com) before I became a hospice patient and many customers would love to talk about this very subject, delighting in the 'new old phrases they'd learned'.. I think when the new settlers came over, they rightfully made changes to the language to make it their own, making tweeks and twists to create their own take on a language that didn't quite fit their 'new land' and their experience with it. We used to stock a Brit/USA dictionary that sold very well!.. The language really isn't that different unless you're talking cockney, or northern regions like Skye in Scotland, when regional dialects come into play... It's really quite like going from Florida to California and exploring the differences is dialects... fun and interesting, and to be enjoyed!
2007-12-09 06:55:10
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answer #6
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answered by happiebaby 2
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The language simply evolved different, there is such a thing as the Atlantic Ocean seperating the two! There are also big differences with Latin American Spanish and North American French. Being away from our cousin for so long, we just parted ways and formed our own expressions.
2007-12-09 06:44:13
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Years and miles of separation. Dictionaries are a rather recent invention. The people in the Appalachian Mountains actually are closest to English of several hundred years ago.
We are much closer today because of movies and modern communication. But I have to admit I was shocked when and Australian asked if he could knock me up sometime. He meant call or visit. Definitely not the American meaning of that phrase.
2007-12-09 06:45:34
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answer #8
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answered by redunicorn 7
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Because British English is the original English, and has Anglo-Saxon origins.
Originally, American English was the same as most people living here came from England. Eventually the American English evolved to reflect it's many influences of immigrants from all over the world.
2007-12-09 06:45:57
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answer #9
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answered by christiekpoe 5
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Because language is in a constant state of change. Slang and the words that people use change as time goes on. Think of the words that you us vs. the words that your grandparents use.
Also we pick up words from different people that move to our country.
As our words change so do theirs, moving the two languges apart from each other. Pulse with the big body of water separating us we never get to meld the two world together.
2007-12-09 06:46:03
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answer #10
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answered by DDLynn l 3
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