Both can not be true because if he is immaculately conceived then he is from the bloodline of Marry and she is not from the bloodline of David. Joseph was from the bloodline of David but he is not the biological father. Your forefathers who created this fictitious story did not think it through properly!!! Neither did you!!!
2007-12-09 03:08:47 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
john_d - maybe because it is not just a religion for the jews by the jews but transcends nations into western culture...
2007-12-09 03:16:21 · update #1
evolver - presumption and assumption is the mother of all f..k-ups!!!
2007-12-09 03:17:57 · update #2
Grannie Annie - you sound like a teenager with a limited vocabulary...
2007-12-09 03:20:47 · update #3
If Marry was from the bloodline of David then Joseph was committing incest - no wonder...
2007-12-09 03:22:05 · update #4
According to the Bible Mary found herself with child prior to her marrying Joseph,,Hmm concieved out of wedlock,,Hey lets cover it up and say it was God "wot" done it,,,that should stop a few tongues wagging,,,
2007-12-09 03:17:27 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 5⤋
Legally Jesus family rights came through Joseph. That is why Matthew shows His genealogy thought Joseph. His humanity come though Mary His mother. Mary was also of the bloodlines of David. Jesus was the rightful King of all Israel..
You error in saying that the doctrine of immaculately conception had anything to do with Jesus. This is a Catholic Doctrine about Mary. The physical body of Jesus was the result of the virgin birth.. They are very much differnt doctrines all together..
I guess you just haven't thought through your objections to virgin birth enough to understand that the Bible is saying.. But not having the Holy Spirit to teach you it is difficult.. IHS Jim
2007-12-09 03:33:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
There are two accounts of the genealogy of Jesus. One is in Matthew and one is in Luke. Matthews account was written to the Jews to show that Jesus fulfilled all the Messianic prophecies. Because the Jews believed all the blessings come from the father, his account goes through the line of Joseph.
Luke's account differs from Matthews on a couple of regards. It goes backwards all the way through to God, to show that Jesus is descended from God. Luke emphasizes that of Mary, not Joseph. Although tracing a genealogy through the mother's side was unusual, so was the virgin birth. Luke's explanation here that Jesus was the son of Joseph ("so it was thought" 4:23) brings to account his explicit virgin birth statement and suggests the importance of the role of Mary in Jesus' genealogy.
For further explanation Matthew has the line going through Solomon and Luke has the line going through Nathan.
2007-12-09 03:31:57 · answer #3 · answered by Acts 4:12 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
What you stated is not historically correct. Maryam was a descendant of David. In the 5th century AD Sinai Syriac codex of the gospels at Luke 2v4b talking about Maryam and Yoseph this gospel codex reads; ‘because that both of them were from the house of David.’ The same teaching is echoed by the early Syriac patristic authors, Aphrahat, Ephrem (both 4th century AD), Philoxenus bishop of Mabbug (6th century AD), Babai the Great (7th century AD), Isho`dad bishop of Merv (9th century AD).
Yeshua` in his resurrected body is truly a descendant of David and he reigns as God forever.
2007-12-09 07:35:04 · answer #4 · answered by Steven Ring 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have thought it through, thank you.
Jesus is a descendant of David, by adoption through Joseph, and by blood through Mary.
http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-son-of-David.html
I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, [and] the bright and morning star.
Rev 22:16
Have a wonderful day.
2007-12-09 04:09:42 · answer #5 · answered by NickofTyme 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Thank you John d I was asked this and gave the answer that my mum was a Jew I think she converted because of my grandad!
I am a Messianic Jew I am Jewess who converted to Christianity 12 years ago lets see what you all make of that!!! Does that make me part of the Davidic Line?!!!
2007-12-09 06:28:28 · answer #6 · answered by mandy r 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It seems to me that Jesus was indeed a lucky chap. Not only was he conceived immaculately, but his father who Mary married was geneologically linked to King David. I personally think that growing up with Joseph as his father guided him through the more political aspects of his life. The Romans later branding him King of the Jews because obviously they would believe his father was directly linked to the throne of David.
Really Jesus was a great healer & performed miracles. Aspects which I think detract from the more political aspirations held for him by his people. His great teachings & miracles came from God.
I think Jesus had quite a split life, his life as a Jewish Rabbi & his life as the son of God.
Quite dynamic & very special, but also volatile. As his teachings would directly clash with his upbringing as a Jew!
It's a case of science & politics clouding our judgement in the belief of God & miracles!
NOTE: you are trying to insinuate that the story is false. Yes there are many contradictions in the Bible! What are you really trying to say?
2007-12-09 03:40:44 · answer #7 · answered by cents 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Jesus needed a woman who grow to be loose from unique Sin to furnish delivery to Him as he grow to be conceived by making use of the Holy Spirit. God bestowed the grace of being born without unique sin or the inclination to sin to Mary while He formed her in her mom's womb. Mary ought to no longer have the stain of unique Sin on her soul. The Catechism of The Catholic Church states "the main Blessed Virgin Mary grow to be, from the 1st 2d of her theory by making use of a unique grace and privilege of Almighty God and by making use of distinctive function of the advantages of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of unique Sin." CCoC area no. 491. Gen. 3:15 foretells her Immaculate theory and destiny to grow to be the mummy of God.
2016-10-10 22:00:47 · answer #8 · answered by ghil 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A) The Immaculate Conception refers to the conception of Mary, NOT Jesus. His is the Incarnation. Get the lingo straight.
B) Who says Mary was not of the line of David?
2007-12-09 03:16:57 · answer #9 · answered by Granny Annie 6 · 3⤊ 2⤋
Get your facts straight, Mary was the daughter of Heli of the tribe of Judah, who was a descendant of King David, and her fiancé at the time was Joseph also was a member of the tribe of Judah, also a descendant of David.
2007-12-09 03:34:53 · answer #10 · answered by Kurt 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The Immaculate Conception refers to the birth of Mary (being born without Original Sin) -- and does not refer to the Virgin Birth.
Educate yourself before you ask stupid questions.
2007-12-09 03:41:38 · answer #11 · answered by Ranto 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋