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and by that i mean the bible not bits and pieces

2007-12-08 17:54:44 · 14 answers · asked by Don Corleone 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

14 answers

...Wasn't he JEWISH?

2007-12-12 17:52:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Do you mean written during the time Jesus would have been alive or within say a decade afterwards? If so, then no. I am not certain but I think there never has been a bible in the language aramaic. At any rate much of it was written quite a long time later, it was not put togetehr in a book until FAR FAR later, and on top of that a couple of conferences later yanked out some of what had been compiled into the original book when it was put together.

The bible as a specific book never has existed, you must refer to it by version from what time comprising which bits and pieces to make clear what you mean.

The bible as the words of Jesus never has existed either, for the same reason, but you can go back to some of the original bits and pieces written soon after his death by eye witnesses and learn their languages so as to do away with translation errors and read it yourself. You will also have to learn their cultures and how to see events through their sociopoliticalreligious viewpoint to eliminate bias.

2007-12-08 18:05:16 · answer #2 · answered by Windrider 2 · 0 0

We assume Jesus spoke Aramaic. And, of course, Hebrew.

The bible was written by those who could write, the "Scribes", as dictated to them by those who wrote it (the "new" testament would have been the apostles, primarily Paul).

Paul was a Hebrew who was also a Roman citizen. If he was a scribe, he would have written in his native tongue of Hebrew. If not, he would have chosen Latin, as he was a Roman.

As for the Gospels and the other writings, your guess is as good as any other.

The "Old testament" was written in Hebrew, and translated to Greek about 400 BC in a document known as the Septuagent. This part of the bible we know the original language, one I am certain Jesus knew, as He was a Rabbi. The common spoken language of the area at the time of Jesus life was Aramaic, so it is easy to assume that the original writings were in that language. But, evidence of such is non existent.

The oldest texts extant are in either Hebrew or Greek. Any conversation about alternative texts is no more than conversation.

So, the answer to your question appears to be "No", except that Jesus must have spoken Hebrew. You can find the entire bible, both new and old testament, in Hebrew. And, you can find a Hebrew to English translation of the bible, translated by Hebrews. I have such a text. It will get you very close to the original language.

Seek, and you will find.

2007-12-08 18:34:41 · answer #3 · answered by zealot144 5 · 0 0

The Scriptures (old part) were written in Hebrew. However, by the time Jesus was doing his Messiah thing, the people spoke Aramaic, a language closely related to Hebrew, while Hebrew had become reserved for prayers and the Scriptures. The New Testament was written first in "Koine" Greek, another spoken language that differed somewhat from the classical tongue. It was then translated to Latin. So the answer to your question would be "NO".

2007-12-08 18:02:12 · answer #4 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 1 1

Yes...

The Aramaic "Peshitta" was a very early translation of the New Testament into a dialect of Aramaic. Several distinct dialects are known, but people could generally communicate among them. There has been a lot of research over the last ~50 years into the language. There are online translations of Both the Greek and Hebrew scriptures available in Aramaic, which was the regional language of Galilee. Since Jesus was a businessman (the people at the synagogue in Nazareth called him "the carpenter" in Mark 6:3) it is VERY likely that he had a basic understanding of Koine Greek, the language of the New Testament and of commerce at the time.

For those saying there is no such version, http://www.aramaicpeshitta.com/ has it of both the Old and New Testaments, as well as English translations based on the Aramaic. You'll have to hunt a little around the site, but all of it is there.

Tricia R: Your estimate of literacy among the disciples is obviously flawed. Matthew, by nature of his prior occupation HAD TO BE LITERATE IN GREEK AND PROBABLY LATIN in addition to Aramaic. Tax collectors were required to document payments, though the documents seem to have often been fictitious in their content.

2007-12-08 17:56:56 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

nicely technically no. a good number of the hot testomony replaced into certainly written down from oral thoughts a protracted time or maybe Centuries after Jesus time in the international. in all possibility different books of the hot testomony have been possibly written in considered one of those languages (maximum possibly Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic). many of the previous testomony replaced into already in print, greater often than not in Hebrew on the time. Many scholars will say that a good number of the meaning has been lost interior the translations and that Hebrew is the suitable language to study it in (can not say if that's real i don't talk or study Hebrew) and additionally that's nicely worth appearing a touch diagnosis in to the language of the era so which you will understand the importance of multiple numbers, symbolic words, and figures of speech.

2016-10-02 07:43:00 · answer #6 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

The Old testament existed. None of the books of the New Testament were written at the time of Jesus. The complete bible did not take form until three hundred years after his death.

2007-12-08 17:58:59 · answer #7 · answered by October 7 · 1 0

jesus is likely to have spoken several languages.

the language of the streets and market places in jerusalem in the first century would have been aramaic, but serious business dealings and philosophical and academic discussions would have been done mainly in greek, much theological and doctrinal teaching would have been in hebrew, and official and legal business would have taken place in latin.

a moderately educated jew (especially an itinerant teacher) during the period would have been fluent in two or more of these languages.

all the earliest texts of the bible are in koine greek, the language of educated speech in the area. there are a few scraps of aramaic here and there in the text.

there are a few non-canon texts which refer to jesus or his teachings in aramaic, though most of these are recent discoveries (and you will not find them in a standard bible).

versions in latin come later, and versions in hebrew and aramaic much later.

the main language jesus spoke is likely to have been aramaic, but he is very likely to have also used koine regularly (and the 'thou art peter and upon this rock' works a lot better as a pun in koine than in aramaic).

2007-12-08 18:04:57 · answer #8 · answered by synopsis 7 · 1 0

In Aramaic? Yes, there's aramaic Bibles - especially the Talmud, which was probably what Jesus himself would have been most familiar with as it would have been read in the synagogue.

But none of Jesus' teachings were written down in Aramaic. They were written down in Greek.

Peace to you.

2007-12-08 17:59:18 · answer #9 · answered by Orpheus Rising 5 · 1 0

the bible was put together,from the words of Jesus, manuscripts.

2007-12-08 17:57:12 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Yes it does written by Jews

2007-12-08 18:01:57 · answer #11 · answered by johnboy 4 · 0 0

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