In the old testament the sons of the gods or god had children with the women of earth or man. In the new testament it says god gave his only begotten son for mans sins, if one is false which one? If one is false dosn't that make both suspect?
2007-12-08 12:30:13 · 12 answers · asked by TheAsender 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yep - there were previous sons of god.
Gen 6:2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they [were] fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.
They will say that Jesus was god's only begotten son but that fails because beget simply means to 1) father; sire 2) cause to exist or occur. How did god get sons if he did not cause them to exist?
2007-12-08 12:50:08 · answer #1 · answered by t_rex_is_mad 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To Understand what this is talking about you need to quote scripture. You are referring to Genesis 6:1 where son"s of the true God had relations with the daughters of men, namely who ever they chose. If you read Jude 6 you will understand in the time of Noah some of the angels forsook there positions and had relations with the daughters of men and had hybrid offspring called Nephilim. see Genesis 6:4.
To correct your thinking about God's son dieing for all mankind is only part right, he knew that not all men would accept his offer of life because it takes accurate knowledge and study to learn the bibles truths. You start at John 17:3, then you ask questions and allow the bible to give you the correct answer. Never assume that the bible is just a good story book.
2007-12-08 12:54:15 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
The Lord Jesus Christ is the one that came to earth as a man so He could die for the sins of the world. When you see sons of God the Bible is talking about created angel in the OT. The Lord Jesus was the only begotten son who was conceived by the Holy Ghost which is the third part of the God head. Matthew 1: 20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
2007-12-08 12:46:31 · answer #3 · answered by Ray W 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No way! When the bible says " sons of God" with a small "s" in "sons" that denotes that it is talking about fallen angels. And yes the fallen angels did have children with earthly women. When then bible says "Son of God" with an uppercase / capital "S" in the word "Son" that denotes that it is talking about Christ.
EDIT: A lower case "s" in "sons of God" can also mean ,, flesh man. Now bring on some more of those thumbs down.
2007-12-08 12:39:50 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
Jesus was the only son of God, God the Father.
2007-12-08 12:41:53 · answer #5 · answered by glamour04111 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The nephalim were not gods. I suppose humans may have mistakenly regarded them as gods, but the theory is that they were actually angels who were with Satan, and certainly not behaving as God wanted them to.
Jesus was the only son of God, God the Father.
2007-12-08 12:37:43 · answer #6 · answered by Barry F 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋
its a hang over from the polytheistic times, god booted out all the old gods and got a publicity agent for the new testament.
2007-12-08 12:38:00 · answer #7 · answered by numbnuts222 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Sons of God were angels. Jesus is God's ONLY BEGOTTEN son.
2007-12-08 12:36:13 · answer #8 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 4⤊ 3⤋
Don't anybody go dying on my account. I'm doing fine. And I wish I would have been asked so I could have called off the entire mythical event.
2007-12-08 12:33:31 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 3⤋
You mean angels had sex with women. Those angels are now what we call demons (bad angels)
I don't get the rest of your question.
2007-12-08 12:35:22 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 5⤋