John 1:1-3: What is “the Word”?

Question

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John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John 1:2 The same was in the beginning with God.
John 1:3 All things were made by Him; and without Him was not any thing made that was made.

Questions:
Why does this Gospel writer (John) use the word “Word”?
How can this “Word” be with God at the same time as being God?
Why did he change from “Word” in verse 1 to “Him” in verse 3?
Why didn’t he just come right out and say “Jesus” rather than using the word “Word”?

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http://www.pbministries.org/books/pink/John/john_02.htm

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EMVej6QXwhk

Answer 1

The answer to this question is found by first understanding the reason why John wrote his gospel. We find his purpose clearly stated in John 20:30-31. “Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.” Once we understand that John’s purpose was to introduce the readers of his gospel to Jesus Christ, establishing Who Jesus is (God in the flesh) and what He did, all with the sole aim of leading them to embrace the saving work of Christ in faith, we will be better able to understand why John introduces Jesus as “The Word” in John 1:1.

By starting out his gospel stating, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God,” John is introducing Jesus with a word or a term that both his Jewish and Gentile readers would have been familiar with. The Greek word translated “Word” in this passage is Logos, and it was common in both Greek philosophy and Jewish thought of that day. For example, in the Old Testament the “word” of God is often personified as an instrument for the execution of God’s will (Psalm 33:6; 107:20; 119:89; 147:15-18). So, for his Jewish readers, by introducing Jesus as the “Word,” John is in a sense pointing them back to the Old Testament where the Logos or “Word” of God is associated with the personification of God’s revelation. And in Greek philosophy, the term Logos was used to describe the intermediate agency by which God created material things and communicated with them. In the Greek worldview, the Logos was thought of as a bridge between the transcendent God and the material universe. Therefore, for his Greek readers the use of the term Logos would have likely brought forth the idea of a mediating principle between God and the world.

So, essentially, what John is doing by introducing Jesus as the Logos is drawing upon a familiar word and concept that both Jews and Gentiles of his day would have been familiar with and using that as the starting point from which He introduces them to Jesus Christ. But John goes beyond the familiar concept of Logos that his Jewish and Gentile readers would have had and presents Jesus Christ not as a mere mediating principle like the Greeks perceived, but as a personal being, fully divine, yet fully human. Also, Christ was not simply a personification of God’s revelation as the Jews thought, but was indeed God’s perfect revelation of Himself in the flesh, so much so that John would record Jesus’ own words to Philip: "Jesus said unto Him, 'Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how do you say, "Show us the Father"?'" (John 14:9). By using the term Logos or “Word” in John 1:1, John is amplifying and applying a concept that was familiar with his audience and using that to introduce his readers to the true Logos of God in Jesus Christ, the Living Word of God, fully God and yet fully man, who came to reveal God to man and redeem all who believe in Him from their sin.

Recommended Resource: Why Believe in Jesus?: Who He Is, What He Did, and His Message for You Today by Tim LaHaye.

Answer 2

It is a very interesting literary tool, that the word "WORD" in Greek is Logos. When John says the "word became flesh", in John 1:14, it becomes clear that Jesus Christ is the Word of God in the flesh; the Bible is the Word of God in revelation. Consider that this is revealed in John 6 (especially verse 63)

John's purpose in the letter is revealed at the end (much like the book of I John), 20:29

John 20:30 And truly Jesus did many other signs in the presence of His disciples, which are not written in this book; 31 but these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in His name.

This might explain what John is revealing, Jesus Christ as two persons at once, the Divine and the Human.

The Son of God is the Divine, explained in John 3:16 as the "monogenes" son, the one son after the nature of God.

The Christ is the Human, the prophecy of places such as Isaiah 53, or Son of David prophecies; Christ means "annointed" and He is annointed by God the Father (Matthew 28:18) to be the means of salvation

The language is not a mistake, it is a very difficult concept commonly called Trinity (Tri-Unity), that Jesus Christ is God, and God is two other persons as well. It is not an easy concept, except to say that man is made in this image, in flesh, spirit and soul.

Answer 3

The REAL Jesus
There is "another Jesus" that is not the REAL Jesus of
the Bible (2 Cor. 11:4). Salvation can only take place
only through faith in the REAL Jesus. Faith in
"another Jesus" cannot save anyone. So how can you
tell if you have the REAL Jesus?
The Jesus of the Bible...
-- is prayed to - Acts 7:55-60; Psalm 116:4
and Zech. 13:9 with 1 Cor. 1:1-2
-- is worshiped - Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33; 28:9;
John 9:35-38; Heb. 1:6
-- is called God - John 20:28; Heb. 1:8; Isa.
9:6
-- is the ONLY way to God - John 14:6; Acts
4:12
-- did not come to bring peace, but a
sword - Matt. 10:34
-- tells us to fear God - Matt. 10:28
-- tells us that the world will hate us - John
15:18-19, 17:14
-- tells us Christians can expect to suffer -
Matt. 5:45; John 16:33; Heb. 11:35-38; 1 Pet.
4:12; 1 John 3:13
-- commands us share the gospel - Matt.
28:19-20; Mark 16:15; Acts 1:8

Answer 4

"Now we see but a poor reflection as in a mirror; then we shall see face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I am fully known. I Cor. 13:12 (NIV). To me, this means that there are some things that we won't fully understand this side of the veil (of our physical death)!

Jesus Christ is "Logos", being translated from the Greek for "Word". Another Greek word for word is "Rhema"; but Jesus is never referred to as "Rhema", since this word has a different meaning. My Greek Interlinear NT translates the original Greek, literally, as: "In [the] beginning was the Word, and the Word was with - God, and God was the Word. This one was in [the] beginning with - God. All things through him became, and without him became not one thing which has become. John 1:1-3. This is based on the Nestle's Greek New Testament.

Check out "biblefacts.org" for a discussion about "logos" and "rhema" and the difference between them. God Bless!

Answer 5

The "word" is a symbolism cause Jesus will come to this world and teach us His word (His Gospel)

The "word" (Jesus) was with God and here John calls Jesus God for a moment, cause they are one IN PURPOSE

John was trying to make sure that every reader would know that The Word was an actual person.

Answer 6

The term used in the Greek text is Logos. In all of the ancient Greek text where the word Logos is used, it is either translated as Logic, Reason, or Wisdom. Many modern day scholars believe that the author meant to use the word in the same case as Wisdom in order to make references to Proverbs, the book of Wisdom, Ecclesiastes, and other Wisdom literature of the day. The term itself has no direct English equivalent and can mean as much as seven different things, but never "word". This is a mistranslation that has been kept in English texts due to tradition. The only modern day language that has a direct equivalent to the term Logos is the Chinese word "Tao". Many Chinese Bibles will use Tao in these verses.

Answer 7

My NIV Study Bible says this:

"logos, a term Greeks used not only of the poken word but also fo the unspoken word, the word still in mind---the reason. When they applied it to the universe, they meant the rational principle that governs all things. The Jews, however, used it to refer to the 'word' of God by which he created the world and governs it and to refer to the law of God that he gave Israel to be the 'way' for them to receive the inheritance of life. Of the wlaw the rabbis said that it was 'created before the world,' that it 'lay on God's bosom while God sat on the throne of glory,' that it was divine, that it was God's 'firstborn' through whom he 'created the heaven and the earth,' that it is 'light' and 'life' for the world and that it 'is truth.' This Jewish use of logos as that which comes frm God to fulfill his purpose in and for the world appears to lie behind the heavily freighted affirmatio non which John begins his Gospel."

Answer 8

These are translations and perhaps no suitable english words apply to the meanings here.

The Word or (Logos) is the representation of God in any form. I don't know why God chose the words he did.

I've heard that the word "Logos" more rightfully applies here. You see, God spoke to us in many diverse ways thru the old testament and it fell on deaf ears. But when the "Logo" or word appeared in human form of Jesus , eureka! we got it!

Make sense? Blessings Juju

Answer 9

person of Jesus Christ the Logos of God
did Adam and Eve broke the word of God
so The Word Became Flesh

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[a] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

and Jews crucified the word of God (Jesus)
finally he rose and rise the sinners.
and Jesus Christ is true God from true God

Good day.

Answer 10

John is a "verily verily" gospel account wherein Jesus plays two parts: Son of man and Son of God; as if before and after.

So it has two Word(s), for compare-i-son
(i) in our image ... allegory for Law (before)
(ii) after our likeness... allegory for Grace (after)

The same = Jesus Christ (Hebrews 13:8)

Paul notes we should all say "the same" things,
which is as if saying we should all say JC things,
since many in Corinth were saying the CJ things.
CJ is mirrorly reverse of JC.
Which things are an allegory.