John 1:18
2007-12-07 10:51:23 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Bible states no man has seen God. If the trinity is true than that statement must refer to Jesus.
2007-12-07 10:56:05 · update #1
oldguy63 please no cop outs. Jesus is God right?
2007-12-07 10:59:23 · update #2
What about Revelation 1:1 That God gave a revelation to Jesus?
How did God give a revelation to himself and no man has seen him yet men have seen God?
2007-12-07 11:01:37 · update #3
Martin S, the verse did not say, "no man has seen God in his full glory", the verse John 1:18 states, "no man has seen God."
Moses did not see God. An angel shielded God from Moses as he passed by. His glory was radiated but under no circumstances was John 1:18 was compromised. Moses did not see God.
2007-12-07 11:20:02 · update #4
Martin S again, "In fact, it could very well be that it was the pre-incarnate Christ who passed in front of Moses on this occasion."
"In fact it could well be" does not cut it. You could assume anything under that context. The Bible doesn't work like that
And still if Jesus is God then Moses still couldn't of seen him anyway.
2007-12-07 11:23:44 · update #5
Jay K: "the point you made did no thing more than prove that you are indeed a moron."
Other words you are stuck and unable to come to an answer so your ego needs restoring. Ah an insult! That will do the trick. Then you quickly scurry away.
2007-12-07 11:46:51 · update #6
RockaSta, The verse doesn't say the Father part of a godhead, it says God as in whole. And yes the trinity doctrine is a bunch of confusion. Yet the Bible says also that God is one of order!
2007-12-07 11:51:37 · update #7
That's because Jesus is not God.
He is the SON of God.
I can see this question will bring more amusing trinity definitions. The trinity doctrine is not supported by the Bible, but it is so funny to read how people try to explain it.
(Sits back to watch, with big grin)
2007-12-07 10:55:27 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
You need to read the whole verse:
John 1:18 "No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him." God is manifested to people through Jesus Christ, because He was given an earthly body. God the father is a spirit and is invisible. 1 Timothy 1:17 "Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen."
2007-12-07 10:57:49 · answer #2 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
You explained it no other explanation needed. The bible is full of proof that the trinity does not exist, but proof can be right in front of peoples faces and they will still choose to disput it. Remember the bible said that the devil would blind the minds of people and he is surley doing this by means of the false doctrine known as the trinity.
2007-12-07 11:35:56 · answer #3 · answered by charlotte626 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No man has seen God in his full glory. Jesus wrapped Himself up in flesh and his glory was veiled like when Moses asked God to show him His glory.
Philippians 2:5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, 7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
Exodus 33:18 Then Moses said, "Now show me your glory." 19 And the LORD said, "I will cause all my goodness to pass in front of you, and I will proclaim my name, the LORD, in your presence. I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. 20 But," he said, "you cannot see my face, for no one may see me and live." 21 Then the LORD said, "There is a place near me where you may stand on a rock. 22 When my glory passes by, I will put you in a cleft in the rock and cover you with my hand until I have passed by. 23 Then I will remove my hand and you will see my back; but my face must not be seen."
In fact, it could very well be that it was the pre-incarnate Christ who passed in front of Moses on this occasion.
2007-12-07 11:13:40 · answer #4 · answered by Martin S 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
He was born human, and ressurrected to be at the right hand of the father. Hence when the trinity become the trinity. Your point is mute.
Another example of someone using bible versus to prove a point. Unfortunetly for you, the point you made did no thing more than prove that you are indeed a moron.
2007-12-07 11:34:13 · answer #5 · answered by jay k 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus isn't God. He is the son of God according to the Bible. Why does it have to matter? Can't we just believe in God and live by the principles the Bible teaches us
2007-12-07 12:12:52 · answer #6 · answered by Ryan 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No one has seen God the Father (the first person of the Blessed Trinity).
However, the second person of the Trinity did assume physical form in the person of Jesus Christ.
2007-12-07 10:54:21 · answer #7 · answered by Veritas 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
My mother always tells me that Jesus and God are one in the same. Although, I have my difference of opinion, I've come to understand that the Bible needs a lot of interpretation, it's worse than Shakespeare sonnets. So, don't worry yourself about it.
2007-12-07 10:54:39 · answer #8 · answered by Silvia 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is not God but the only begotten son of God.He said my Father is greater than I.
2007-12-07 11:01:17 · answer #9 · answered by jackiedj8952 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No one has ever seen God. But his only Son, who is himself God, is near to the Father's heart; he has told us about him
From the NIV Bible......the King James is a bit harder to understand.
2007-12-07 10:58:32 · answer #10 · answered by Ken 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋