I'm going to try this again...I'll take it one at a time this time.
We will start with this one:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20071207113735AAqhUxk
Yes, he is asking for confirmation...but three atheists respond that he has a good argument. But looking at it now...do any atheists think his logic is sound and that it is correct to "equate the kingdom of god with nothing"?
Here is why I think it is illogical. He takes a riddle that is a play on words...the answer implies the poor have nothing. So he finds a verse in the Bible that says "blessed are the poor for theirs is the kingdom of god". He then substitues the "nothing" from the riddle...that has nothing to do with Bible...and comes up with his "equation"...."kingdom of god equals nothing".
Please, if you really think this is a sound logical equation...give details on how it is.
2007-12-07 08:44:57 · 29 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I love that whenever an atheist is caught being illogical...they just come out and say..."I was joking".
2007-12-07 08:51:37 · update #1
Of course it is a joke...it must be a joke...because he is an atheist and he must be pure logic. So then it was a bad joke based on screwed up logic? Or is that false too?
2007-12-07 08:54:43 · update #2
"Unlike you guys" Hmmmm...exactly what group are you putting me into now?
2007-12-07 08:56:15 · update #3
Battery Operated Boyfriend: I tried to give out hugs...but that got deleted. As will this one...and the one before this one. You get the idea.
2007-12-07 08:59:52 · update #4
Acid Zebra: you make me laugh. Yes very good...that logic IS correct. If you are playing along now...care to guess where the logic isn't correct?
2007-12-07 09:01:47 · update #5
Jeff: Yes I did...but with too many questions. In my last question though you said that this was logical. Now you are saying it is not...but funny. I'm confused.
2007-12-07 09:03:09 · update #6
it's nothing but a play on words
2007-12-07 08:49:38 · answer #1 · answered by bregweidd 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
While you might not like the question, it is not "illogical". While it might be a little bit overboard to think that the word "nothing" in the riddle also refers to the kingdom of God, (obviously the riddler is referring to material goods) "illogical" would not be the right word to use.
While it might be a play on words, the riddle states that the poor have "nothing". The riddle does not *say* or imply that "nothing" is only in reference to material goods. It simply says that the poor have nothing. So the questioner is showing that the Bible says that the poor have the kingdom of God, (which should be considered by believers to be the greatest thing of all) and then asks if those believers who pass the riddle around believe that the kingdom of God is "nothing". The question is just pointing out some irony. Yes, it's going a little overboard, but It's not "illogical".
2007-12-07 09:11:29 · answer #2 · answered by Jess H 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm not really sure what all your fuss is about. What he is saying obviously relies on asserting both the riddle AND the Bible. If you do so, then it is a valid question - is the Kingdom of God equatable with nothing?
I don't see where he asks you to apply it in a general sense over the entire planet, so I think you are overreacting a little bit. All he asks is to further the play on words and phrases. No one said it was a law of the universe.
2007-12-07 08:52:55 · answer #3 · answered by Phoenix: Princess of Cupcakes 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
1st strike - Word substitution has nothing to do with logic, it's based on definition. He's simply playing with definitions.
Second strike - But there is a problem of logic with your question. If he is (as you both seem to admit) an Atheist, you could not reaonably deduce that he would believe the Bible is true to use it to make an actual argument. The fact that you think this was meant to be an argument shows questionable intelligence.
Strike three - when he admits what should have been obvious, that this was a joke, you question that as well.
Next batter.
2007-12-07 09:01:18 · answer #4 · answered by neil s 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
sigh.. C'mon it's just a riddle.
Of course it's not true that the poor have nothing or that the rich don't need anything. It's just a riddle and it's meant to exaggerate things and go for the extremes. I say get over it.
Wanna know what I find illogical? That you're actually taking it that seriously.
2007-12-07 08:51:57 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I do so love it when theists have to resort to semantics :) and even better when they stoop to the level of logic............
What exatly are you asking? It seems to me like you've failed to phrase the question understandably. (is that a real word?)
Are you asking about the logic or his hypothesis? As in, do you want to know if all the parts are true, or if the logical conclusion from those premises is correct?
EDIT
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Did I break him? I sowwy :(
EDIT2
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What the hell, I got time....
Poor have nothing...
Poor have the kingdom of heaven...
Seems undefined. Either they have both, or they two are equal; are they mutually exclusive?.... so I'd say it's not automatically a valid statement, or invalid. Does that help?
2007-12-07 09:08:25 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
You've got us now. We are not logical 24/7. Sometimes, we agree with illogical arguments. That must mean we are always wrong.
By the way, I sincerely believe that this question was intended as a joke. Whether it was or not, this one instance does not demonstrate that all arguments for atheism are logically bankrupt.
2007-12-07 08:56:18 · answer #7 · answered by Pull My Finger 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
If the riddle is correct then yes it is logical. I don't think the riddle is correct or holds any meaning in a theological discussion of the existence of God so I would not necessarily call that one of the "big guns" in a debate.
2007-12-07 08:50:09 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I couldn't be bothered going to the original - I'm sure it was playing with words as you have so 'unknowingly' demonstrated.
It "is correct to "equate the kingdom of god with nothing" " because as every atheist knows, there is no heaven and therefore it doesn't exist and THEREFORE it is nothing, null and void and empty.
"Blessed are the poor for theirs is the kingdom of god"
As we have already ascertained - there is no heaven therefore they have nothing which we already knew cos they're poor and it stands to reason they have nothing ... ad infinitum.
Whether it be a play on words or not, the poor still have nothing; that’s why they’re defined as poor.
.
2007-12-07 09:08:10 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No it is not a logical conclusion.
But lighten up. I doubt that these guys earnestly think that a riddle and some bible quotes proves the non-existence of god.
Who needs the riddle part to do that?
BTW, talking about the ability to use logic, I think there is something in your eye there. Let me get a crane to help you get it out.
2007-12-07 09:04:06 · answer #10 · answered by Simon T 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What he is saying is logically sound If the poor has nothing and they have the kingdom of God then the kingdom of God is nothing. However this does not necessarily prove the kingdom of God is nothing it may also prove that the poor have more than nothing.
2007-12-07 08:54:16 · answer #11 · answered by NOJ 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋