you all know the riddle by now i'm sure. the answer is nothing. what i'm confused on is the first part. the part i'm confused on is the first part. the poor have it? ok, so the poor have nothing. but the bible says, blessed are the poor for theirs is the kingdom of god. so if the poor have nothing and the poor have the kingdom of god, is it fair to equate the kingdom of god with nothing?
2007-12-07
06:37:35
·
8 answers
·
asked by
just curious (A.A.A.A.)
5
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
delete that second sentence...
2007-12-07
06:40:46 ·
update #1
this is me, having little and having nothing are two entirely different things. the rich also need very little. can we assume then from the answers to the rich and the poor part of the question, and even what you eat, that very little is the answer to the other two parts of the question?
2007-12-07
06:44:05 ·
update #2
annoyed, i think someone should have thought about the riddle more before making it...
2007-12-07
06:46:05 ·
update #3
searcher, open your mind every once in a while and you might have an original thought too. peace...
2007-12-07
06:46:42 ·
update #4
searcher, no need to have a hissy fit. absolute truth should have no contradictions. don't tell people they have nothing, and then tell them they are blessed. what sort of b.s. is that?
2007-12-07
06:49:23 ·
update #5