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Leviticus 12 (KJV)

"1And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying,

2Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child: then she shall be unclean seven days; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean.

3And in the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised.

4And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying three and thirty days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled.

5But if she bear a maid child, then she shall be unclean two weeks, as in her separation: and she shall continue in the blood of her purifying threescore and six days.

6And when the days of her purifying are fulfilled, for a son, or for a daughter, she shall bring a lamb of the first year for a burnt offering, and a young pigeon, or a turtledove, for a sin offering, unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, unto the priest:

2007-12-06 22:20:03 · 11 answers · asked by Gap™ ( uses the WikiBible™ ) 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

"7Who shall offer it before the LORD, and make an atonement for her; and she shall be cleansed from the issue of her blood. This is the law for her that hath born a male or a female.

8And if she be not able to bring a lamb, then she shall bring two turtles, or two young pigeons; the one for the burnt offering, and the other for a sin offering: and the priest shall make an atonement for her, and she shall be clean."

Am I interpreting this incorrectly? It seems to convey the idea that giving birth is a sin.

I've asked this question before and got this response:

"That's a bunch of Old Covenant stuff, Christians are under the New Covenant. Ask harder questions or go bug the Jews about these things."

OC or not, the word "sin" appears quite conspicuously TWICE in this chapter. It very strongly suggests that giving birth was at least considered a sin at one time. Does anybody have a CONVINCING argument to the contrary and not just an insult?

2007-12-06 22:20:15 · update #1

Are most of you missing the phrase: "SIN OFFERING" here?

2007-12-06 22:39:11 · update #2

11 answers

That's exactly what it's saying - hence the requirement of a "sin offering." The Abrahamic religions hate women and hate sex - that's why they don't like Pagans, who celebrate sexuality. They were trying to make people kowtow to their warrior god and the people around them were worshiping the Goddess of infinite love. People only converted through violence, not free will.

2007-12-06 22:37:08 · answer #1 · answered by Morgaine 4 · 0 3

Leviticus 12-15 describes further laws for dealing with uncleanness. This section in the Bible of the Levitical law deals with aspects of what could be called uncleanness in the flesh due to infections or secretions of the body, including the expulsion of fluids associated with birth (see 12:1-8)...

This part of the law raises some questions in the minds of many readers. The most obvious question is, Why should natural bodily functions render one unclean? First, "unclean" in the Mosaic sense did not suggest something disgusting or filthy; nor did it imply that the body or the natural functions of the body; such as childbirth or sexual relations, were inherently evil.

"The term 'unclean' in this and the following cases, is generally understood in a mere 'legal' sense, the rendering of a person 'unfit' for 'sacred ordinances'." (Clark, Bible Commentary, 1:559). This point is very important to understanding the Lord's revelations on these matters. The ordinances of the Mosaic law were all designed to symbolize spiritual truths. The more nearly one approached perfection in the performance of the law, the more closely one approached the true symbolic meaning of the ordinance. The physical body and its natural functions remind one that he is of the earth, of the physical. Therefore, to say that a man or woman was unclean (that is, not to perform sacred ordinances) at certain times was to suggest to the mind that the natural man must be put aside in order to approach God.

2007-12-06 22:35:03 · answer #2 · answered by Arthurpod 4 · 1 0

Giving birth was not considered to be a "sin" per se, but fell under the hygienic laws concerning issue of bodily fluids. In this case, the blood and amniotic fluid from childbirth would make the woman ritually "unclean", therefore impure.

The offering that she brought as a "sin" offering was to publicly show that she had obeyed the Law concerning separation for being unclean and that she was being purified by God for her obedience to His commandment concerning childbirth.

Once the sacrifice had been made, she was ritually clean again and could enter the Temple and the congregation of Israel.

I hope this clarifies things?

2007-12-06 22:34:11 · answer #3 · answered by Foxfire 4 · 4 0

How ridiculous, of course its not a sin to give birth!.

It just says that the woman won't be fit for sex for some time afterwards. And, in accordance with the way people thought in those days, she was described as 'unclean' as she might still be bleeding.

2007-12-06 22:29:11 · answer #4 · answered by Babs 3 · 4 0

I was told that the Hebrews believed that after giving birth a woman was unclean until she was cleansed. I believe that Mary had one of these ceremonies after giving birth to Jesus which is celebrated in the Catholic Church. However I am not convinced that Christians today hold those beliefs and only think that Jewish people still practice this.

2007-12-06 22:25:13 · answer #5 · answered by Wyvern 2 · 1 1

It is the context in which it was translated that makes it sound ambiguous. The wording for unclean could mean post-birth biological functions, such as a discharge of excess fluids and membrane from the womb. :)

2007-12-06 22:31:37 · answer #6 · answered by feltrex 2 · 2 0

The OT cleansing and purification laws were there for a reason. It kept people clean and healthy in an environment where they didn't have the modern drugs we have to overcome the illness and infections associated with birth.

2007-12-06 22:32:51 · answer #7 · answered by Don 5 · 4 0

It is no sin to give birth. As a matter of fact, the woman is nearer to God, for she is giving birth to a created life. During the actual period of creation/birth, there is a process where she is mired in impurities, from physical point of view. She is weak and sickly. She has to recuperate herself from the after effects of child-birth. She needs to be rested and freed from disturbance from other persons. God himself observed sabbath or rest after spending a few days in creation.

2007-12-06 22:27:07 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

That sure was a long one.

Babies yes. Isn't that when stocking caps were first used to keep babies head warm without all the preaching?

2007-12-06 22:36:11 · answer #9 · answered by Eagles Fly 7 · 0 1

"unclean" doesn't mean sin. Didn't this question just get asked?

Here:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AvzyrcW6Ghp9t.x8uvVpk2zty6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20071206232115AAAE6bj&show=7#profile-info-HMGUfg8laa

2007-12-06 22:23:22 · answer #10 · answered by Last Ent Wife (RCIA) 7 · 6 2

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