. . . your personal moral code is at least loosely based on a theocratic code of some kind, whether Judeo-Christian or not? Whether intentionally or not?
Just curious, not picking a fight.
Thanks all!
2007-12-06 13:03:46 · 19 answers · asked by herfinator 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I'm honored that you acknowledge that atheists have a moral code. That's much more than can be said about a lot of people.
I would say that almost everyone's moral code is influenced by the culture they were raised in and/or live in. As I was born into a "Christian" culture, it would be difficult for my moral code to not be influenced by Christianity.
Of course, that's not to say that Christian morality is good or will necessarily be a better option than an alternative.
2007-12-06 13:08:46 · answer #1 · answered by Defunct 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
I am Christian but would like to add a few insights.
There is a universal moral code that seems to cross every culture, religion, political philosophy, nation, and tribe. With a few historical exceptions which are usually stark, the laws of most nations and religions are universal.
It doesn't matter if you are Christian, Hindu, Agnostic, Wiccan, or Atheist...a liar is not wise...a drunk is not wise...a thief is not wise. This phenomena runs through the history of man and is very black and white with a few gray areas.
The gray areas are usually wrapped around two precepts; individually and collectively we will throw out some or all of the rules to survive and a wide variance in a cultures view of sexuality. Interestingly enough, from a Christian point of view, these two are tied into the our brokeness expressing itself in the two ways that we are closest to God....First we are eternal in nature and thus the survival instinct is very strong and second as God creates so we also procreate and our sex drives are very intense.
To your question...are all "codes" Judeo-Christian? Yes.
Or could we say is Judeo-Christian law similar to all other systems of law? And of course the answer is "Yes".
The Scripture teaches us that the Gentile by their very nature do the things contained in the law either accusing or excusing themselves by it...and this is true. The question is whether God delivered the law to Moses or whether Moses adapted the law from the common law of mankind or we could expand this and ask whether the universal law of man comes from God living and breathing in us or is it just our nature apart from a "god".
The good news is that no one can master any code perfectly and we all fall short of the glory of God...but He has provided a Way for us by fulfilling that which we could not do in the Person fo Jesus Christ. The principles of unmerited Grace rightly taught strain against the fiber of our very existence because we tend to evaluate everything and everybody by the universal law.
Grace to all without finding fault is unbelievable. We can proclaim that we believe it all we want but our hearts and thoughts decieve and betray us. I am thankful that I have Father who I can go to and be direct and honest when I tell Him who I am and how I view the world. He continues to tell me that His strength is made perfect in my weakness and spurs me on to do the ministry in spite of myself.
All Glory to our Lord.
agapefromnc
2007-12-06 21:26:54 · answer #2 · answered by harry killwater 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Isn't it fair to say that any theocratic code of any kind is simply based off of the necessary and natural moral code human beings have even without religion?
2007-12-06 21:12:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
The "Golden Rule" idea basically sums it up; but no, it is not based in Judeo-Christian teachings. Quite the opposite. The idea was around before either existed; and can be found in nearly all religions. It follows from this that it is a human idea, not a divine one.
Being good requires no divine permission.
2007-12-06 21:09:38 · answer #4 · answered by Dashes 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Who's to say if our moral code is based on Judeo-Christian values or if J-C values themselves are based on an even older moral code?
2007-12-06 21:09:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Moral code? I think people can identify between right and wrong without religious interference. In fact Atheists are a lot more accepting of others than strict religious groups.
2007-12-06 21:12:43 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
No it is not fair to say that. I think scripture is based on a moral code, not the other way around. The original code of ethics is put into the bible by people who know right from wrong and then people claim that the bible is the origin of it.
2007-12-06 21:08:29 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
we all borrow form other moral codes. Christianity was based on other pagan religions. they were based on other previous religions. Christianity it self had some pretty horrible traditions that changed. So really who is following who?
2007-12-06 21:09:48 · answer #8 · answered by Lord NeXuS M00N 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, my moral code largely predates religious beliefs. It comes from human evolution and later the Scottish Enlightenment.
2007-12-06 21:07:24 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
There has been evidence of "moral" behavior exhibited by humans long before civilization and religion. I don't think it's fair for any religion to stake claim on morality.
2007-12-06 21:08:04 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋