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Can someone please tell me when the inspirational story of a female that was saved by Jesus (he said those who without sin throw the first stone…) was added to the bible and why?

2007-12-06 10:06:06 · 13 answers · asked by PicassoInAction 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

To be in short.
It was added to gospel of John in about 1200ce
Its not in all earlier manuscripts including p57 , It was as marginal note puted in by scribe in one of manuscripts but in 12000's it became part of the John gospel .

2007-12-06 10:33:08 · update #1

13 answers

Cabrobst has much of it right according to my information (that it jumps around the manuscripts), but seems inaccurate in others (saying it exists in the oldest manuscripts).

According to my readings, the pericope is not found in either of the two 3rd century papyrus witnesses to John (P66 (papyrus 66) and P75). It is also missing from the 4th century codices (referring to a bound book rather than a scroll), Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus. The first surviving Greek manuscript to include the pericope is the Latin/Greek diglot Codex Bezae of the fifth century.

Until recently, the earliest known mention by any any Greek Church Father was in the 12th century. More recently, a collection of writings Didymus the Blind (c313- 398) was found in Egypt which included a reference to the Pericope Adulterae.

It looks like the periscope did exist as early as the 4th century, but did not exist in all copies of John at that time. One bit of support is that the Egyptian Codex Vaticanus marks the end of John chapter 7 with an "umlaut", indicating that an alternative reading was known at this point.

So all we can say is that it was in circulation by the early 4th century.

As to why?

Unlike Jesus' quote in Mark where Jesus is adamant about his followers following the Law, this gives a more Pauline view where the Law is not so absolute. It is hard for us to remove it today because it is so essential to the principle of Divine forgiveness though Jesus. It is a passage that reinforces the Pauline idea that "for all have sinned," no one is above the other and emphasizes Paul's emphasis on belief in Jesus' resurrection rather than following the Law.

Speaking of Paul, his instruction that women should be silent in church, so soon after praising some women for their work as ministers and apostles (how can you preach and prophesy if you can't speak?), also jumps around in the earliest texts leading scholars to the conclusion that it was a latter addition.

2007-12-06 10:35:53 · answer #1 · answered by Donald J 4 · 0 0

It was not something that was added in later as an afterthought, all the evidence points to it being part of the original record of Jesus' life and ministry.

The Gospels do however say that there are many deeds and sayings of the Messiah that were not included as space did not permit the inclusion of them all.

It would not make sense for them to have left out anything of critical importance so the inclusion of the "let he who is without sin, cast the first stone" incident is because it is one of the most important lessons of the Bible.

A woman, who had been caught in the act of adultery was brought to Jesus by the scribes (Lawyers) and Pharisees (legalistic religious extemists) as a test to see if the Messiah was a liberal in matters of the Law of God.

In response to this setup, Jesus didn't condemn the woman, not because He was a liberal, not because He condoned her sin, but because the men who brought the woman to Him were Hypocrites who were just out to make trouble.

Jesus was the only person there that day who was free of sin, the only one who had the right to "cast the first stone." But he didn't stone her (or her accusers), but instead forgave her and told her to "sin no more." because the day is coming when she, if she didn't thereafter repent, won't be stoned, but will be burned in the lake of fire- along with the hypocrites who brought her to Him that day, if they didn't thereafter repent of their sin.

The lesson was therefore not to accuse anyone hypocritcaly and to repent of sin before it is too late.

Jesus was not arguing with the judgment. Nor was Jesus arguing the law nor the woman's guilt. Jesus was arguing with the Scribes and Pharisees right to execute the woman.

Once all the men in the mob had dropped their stones Jesus confronted the woman and asked her if any of the men were still there to condemn her. When she answered "No man, Lord", Jesus told her that neither did He - He forgave her of her sin.

He did not excuse the sin of adultery/prostitution, he forgave her of it.

All that is sinful before forgiveness is still sinful after forgiveness.

Not only was Jesus not afraid to call a sin a sin, He was not afraid to call a sinner a sinner. He even reminded her of the sin of adultery/prostitution by telling her "Go and sin no more."

This lesson was just too important not to be included in the Bible.

2007-12-06 10:41:58 · answer #2 · answered by jeffd_57 6 · 0 0

The short answer is nobody knows. It is not in the earliest manuscripts. It appears that the story circulated separately and is known in the third century. It may well have come down to us through the Eastern church. By the ninth century is was incorporated.
The best theory which I have heard to explain why it was originally omitted is that the story was not accepted. It was hard to reconcile the ease with which Jesus forgives the adulteress with the stern penitential practice firmly established in the church.

2007-12-06 10:22:40 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The story you refer to is in the book of John - one of the gospels. It was written in approx 80 AD.

This book was an accepted part of the Bible canon as early as 160 AD.

2007-12-06 10:12:31 · answer #4 · answered by eliz_esc 6 · 0 0

Picassiol, I am Jewish so I cannot say about this particular story, because I do not remember where it is in the Christian Bible. I read this story in the past and in most countries today, stoning a person to death is not done( in civilized countries). Stealing was a cause for stoning to death not so many generations ago in Judiasm and Christianity. Best luck in your spiritual endeavors and getting to know truth.

2007-12-06 10:13:16 · answer #5 · answered by brennie 1 · 0 0

This is called the Pericope Adulteratum.
It's so old that we cannot tell when it was added, but it's in the oldest copies available. The problem is that it moves around, sometimes it's in Luke! But it smells old. A bunch of religious fuddy duddies would never have thought of it, as it does not show Christ in a good light for religious people of that day.

2007-12-06 10:12:55 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

We'll never know as none of the New Testament was written for several decades after his death. Jesus and his followers certainly could not read nor write... others had to relate the stories (oral history) at a later date.

2007-12-06 10:10:25 · answer #7 · answered by waynebudd 6 · 0 1

It depends on the publisher if they choose to have it as part of their edition or not.

Most publisher's have a footnote stating that is was not part of some original.

So I'm like you - why does it get in and sometimes not? hhhhmmmmmm.

2007-12-06 10:09:58 · answer #8 · answered by Sebestian R 5 · 0 1

I can't tell you, but I'm sure it was after the council of Nicea. The original Greek text omits it, but refers to it at the bottom, that is all.

2007-12-06 10:10:05 · answer #9 · answered by Starjumper the R&S Cow 7 · 0 2

i believe that is part of the Gospels, so it was added around the time of the apostles...with the gospel...

they included it because its a great quote!
a lesson we all must learn

2007-12-06 10:09:14 · answer #10 · answered by 2009 time to shine 4 · 0 3

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