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The Tsar,The Kaiser,and George Sax Coberg(Windsor)all the same family.

2007-12-06 08:28:41 · 15 answers · asked by Francis7 4 in Politics & Government Military

15 answers

No it was down to an Austrian Prince being assassinated by a Serbian backed terrorist, primed equipped and smuggled over the border by members of the Serbian Black Hand Gang.

Emperor Franz-Josef of Austro-Hungaria sent troops against Serbia in retaliation, setting in place a chain of events which shook the world.

Yes most of the Royal families are related by Blood and Marriage but that did not have anything to do with the start of the war.

The British Royal family had no power as many of the Royal families of the time, it was the individual Governments who were behind the decisions to go to war.

2007-12-06 08:36:41 · answer #1 · answered by conranger1 7 · 2 1

Yes and No-They were all related, the Windsors were the Kaisers cousins as was the Czar's family but the "sibling rivalry" factor only made the political reasons for WW1 harder to solve. It seems to be forgotten that the actual war started between Austria-Hungary and Serbia, who had an alliance with the French, over the Balkans area; everyone else was drug into it because of alliances. German's with A-H and France because of the alliance with Serbia then the British and Russians did because of there alliance with France; then the Ottoman Empire (Turks) because of an alliance with Germany. Many political reasons for the war, mostly territorial and the family relationship was a minor factor. Most royal families were related for the smple reason that royaly married royalty and there was not that many of them.

2007-12-06 09:08:14 · answer #2 · answered by GunnyC 6 · 2 1

No!!! Where the f*ck did you get this from, they were related but that had nothing to do with the outbreak of war.

It was to do with arms races, alliance systems, land grabs, assasinations and crucially... Germany violating the treaty of london by invading 'The Low Countries' (Belgium and The Netherlands)

GunnyC is wrong. The original disagreement was between Serbia and Austro-Hungary. The Russia got involved, then Germany, then France, then Germany invaded 'The Low Countries' leading Britain to get involved.

The initial argument with France you allude to was the Moroccan crisis which was a territorial dispute with Germany.

2007-12-06 09:10:17 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Yeah, basically the Royal families of Europe were all related by marriage to the Late Queen Victoria of England, being a grandson or a cousin in some form....

2007-12-06 09:05:20 · answer #4 · answered by oscarsix5 5 · 0 0

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2016-12-30 11:31:43 · answer #5 · answered by avenia 3 · 0 0

think it was all down to family ?going back Kaiser Karl he was a bit of a ladies man I like the story where he had the bridge built to see his women in secret?the bridge still stands in Gent with the lady sculptures at each end,they liked there wars but they liked there women.

2007-12-06 20:35:19 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

gunny has it pretty much correct, though france actually declared war on germany and not vice versa (though germany had it's troop mobilized before the french :p ).
All in all most countries were drawn into it by their respective pacts.

2007-12-06 14:41:23 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No. There were a lot of reasons. Germany had a plan to invade France for several years and was pretty much just waiting for an excuse. Do a little more research.

2007-12-06 08:35:49 · answer #8 · answered by Sordenhiemer 7 · 0 3

That is an over simplification but not too far from the mark.

2007-12-06 08:37:47 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Lol, no. Go ahead and read to chapter 2. It gets more involved.

2007-12-06 08:37:13 · answer #10 · answered by Molly Pitcher 4 · 2 0

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