Didn't you ask this question (although with more facts because the other question had information about it being 3 years since the damage occurred and the development of this issue).
So, I have a few questions/answers:
Did you already settle the case for the damaged ligaments in the knee? If so, then you won't get any more money for this issue because the settlement agreement should have covered any and all claims for the damage to your knees.
If not, have you already filed a lawsuit or did you wait? Because if you already filed the lawsuit (BEFORE the statute of limitations expired) and it hasn't settled, then it depends on what is negotiated.
If you haven't already filed the lawsuit and didn't settle the case, then probably nothing.
Did this occur at work? If so, did you advise your employer and retain an attorney to handle the workers' compensation matter? Regardless of fault, if this occurred at work, you should be able to get some coverage through workers' compensation, although it would be reduced by the percentage that was your fault.
If this did not occur at work, where did it occur? At your home? At someone else's property? What happened? Was a lawsuit filed or did nothing occur?
2007-12-09 12:00:22
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answer #1
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answered by Princess Leia 7
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Compensation from whom? Like disability ins or worker's comp? If you hurt yourself on the job or fell and can sue someone for negligence, you may receive compensation of some sort, but if you damaged the ligaments playing a sport or just due to tripping over your own shoelace, likely nothing at all.
2007-12-06 04:32:17
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answer #2
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answered by GEEGEE 7
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You don't get any, automatically. It's highly specific as to how it happened, and under what circumstances - not to mention your state law.
2007-12-06 06:29:25
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous 7
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None, unless you can prove it was due to the negligence of others.
2007-12-06 06:29:35
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answer #4
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answered by npk 7
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