Shakespearian sexual innuendo?

Question

I know that Shakespeare used lots of innuendo and double meanings in lots of his text, and that much of his humor is still relevant today.

My question is: Did Shakespeare he ever used the word "come" in a sexual manner, and did it have a double meaning in his time?

Answer 1

There's no definition or usage of the word "come" in the "Elizabethan Online Dictionary."

http://www.elizabethan-era.org.uk/elizabethan-online-dictionary.htm

That said, there's no question that Shakespeare's works are filled with double entendre. In fact one academic, Héloïse Sénéchal, says she has discovered over 100 terms for vagina.

For a more complete understanding of slang and sexual language in Shakespeare, go to:

http://www.rscshakespeare.co.uk/senechal.html#slang

Answer 2

Shakespeare is more likely to use a word like "spend" -- "Don't spend it all in one place" -- to mean "spent," as in, after the sex act and someone is spent or someone has come. He's not above accenting the first syllable in the word "country" as Hamlet lays his head in Ophelia's lap, if you get my meaning.