no he wasnt...no proof
2007-12-06 02:49:41
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answer #1
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answered by jesussaves 7
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That's the rumor/ assumptions.
That hadn't been confirmed. People assumes that because he was always in the company of men, not women. There's no record of him doing anything with men. Just people assuming.
That's not confirmed, but assumed.
Anyway, since the KJV speaks against homosexuals, that does show the the KJV wasn't translated according to what he wanted the KJV to say, but translated word for word from the original tongues, as the translators mentioned.
If he was gay, then I don't see him approve of something that would be against him without changing it to be compatible with his own lifestyle.
If you look at all of the other translated bibles, they clearly show that verses were translated according to what the translators and/or who was behind the translations, were translated according to what they wanted people to believe instead of translated word for word.
The KJV has quite a few things that is opposite from the other translated bibles.
Examples are: Jesus telling the thief on the cross, "Today you will be with me in Paradise". The other bibles say he told the thief "heaven". The bibles, including the KJV, has a verse that clearly says he never did return to heaven that same day he died on the cross.
another ex: The KJV says that Jesus walked on the beach naked, the other bibles say that it wasn't Jesus who was naked, but the it was Peter who was naked. How the verses were worded is what helps make it harder to understand what is being said.
2007-12-06 03:06:03
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answer #2
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answered by tiscpa 3
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Who cares. Its got nothing to do with the Bible. The only
reason its called The King James is because the powers
that were at the time wanted him to finance the printing of
the Bible & to butter him up,they named it after him & told him
one of the authors was James. However the true author of
that book was Ya'aqob/Jacob the brother of Yeshua. All
Jewish, what a surprise. Whether people like it or not we are
following a Jewish Messiah.
2007-12-06 02:55:26
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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enormously much not at all. He married Anne of Denmark, and that that they had 3 babies. 2 classes right here. First, homosexuals and their allies will smear super historic figures after their deaths by using accusing them of sexual perversion to justify their very own sexual behavior. Even Abraham Lincoln has been smeared in this way. 2nd, all people who marries and has babies won't be able to be genetically incapable of hetero love. The act of sexual intercourse demands sexual exhilaration with a mating companion of the different intercourse. the undeniable fact that maximum practising homosexuals have had favourite sexual intercourse demonstrates that homosexuals opt for perversion for reasons different than genetics. Cheers, Bruce
2016-10-19 09:47:45
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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Who cares... there are plenty more of them alive today!
Christianity ought to be grateful to a homosexual king for giving them the ONLY God the Holy Ghost inspired version of God's WORD!
2007-12-06 02:55:41
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Richard the First..The Lion heart..could have been and several others like Edward II
2007-12-06 02:55:47
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answer #6
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answered by PROBLEM 7
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Who knows fore sure? Much of our history should be processed through the old "now I wonder who wrote this" filter. Some people have different axes to grind for different reasons. Its all suspect, there is no way around it.
2007-12-06 02:56:41
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answer #7
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answered by Poor Richard 5
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His title was Queen James
2007-12-06 02:47:24
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answer #8
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answered by Od Ephraim Chai 4
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Were any of his castles decorated with a bunch of stuff from Bed Bath and Beyond?
2007-12-06 02:52:09
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answer #9
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answered by Yawni 1
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Why would anyone GIVE a flying rat's patoot? That's like wondering if a person had been left-handed. A NON-issue.
2007-12-06 02:53:45
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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Interesting. It would definitely explain why that translation is so poor. It's time to move onto NIV people.
2007-12-06 02:50:47
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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